Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/224

Click to flip

224 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Name the four types of infectious organisms.
Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, Parasitic.
2) Name the two MOST COMMON infectious organisms.
Bacterial and Viral
3) How does Airborne Transmission occur?
Dissemination of particles through the air or dust.
4) Which infection transmission occurs through animals and insects like rats or mosquitoes?
Vector-borne Transmission
5) Why are alcohol-based products preferred over anti-septic for soiled hands?
The Superior Microbiocidal Activity
6) What is an example of an illness transmitted by contact?
Herpes-Simplex virus, Impetigo, Lice, and/or Scabies
7) What is an example of an illness transmitted by airborne microorganisms?
Measles, Varicella, and/or Tuberculosis
8) What is an example of an illness transmitted by droplets?
Influenza, Diphtheria, Mumps, and/or Rubella
9) Define “Cleaning.”
Removal of all visible dust, soil, and any other foreign material
10) Define “Disinfection.”
Destruction of many or all infectious organisms on inanimate objects
11) What are the 4 levels of disinfection recognized by the CDC?
Sterilization, High Level, Intermediate Level, and Low Level.
12) What is low level disinfection used for?
Non-Critical items that are in contact with INTACT skin.
13) What is intermediate level disinfection used for?
Semi-Critical items like thermometers or hydrotherapy tanks.
14) What is high level disinfection used for?
Semi-Critical items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin.
15) What is sterilization used for?
Critical items that enter tissue or vascular space like needles or implants.
16) True or False, A 1:50 dilution means to add one part bleach to fifty parts water.
False (it means add one part bleach to FORTY NINE parts water.)
17) True or False, Bodily fluids are considered NOT INFECTIVE for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease.
True
18) What is the incubation period for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease?
2 years to decades
19) Per END Recommendations, what electrodes should be used when CJD is suspected?
Single Use Electrodes that should be burned after use. If reusable electrodes are used, they should be washed to reduce the amount or particulate material and then sterilized by autoclave.
20) How many Milli-Amps of shock can cause death to your patient?
100-300mA
21) What is the Local Average Reference?
A unique reference for each electrode based off a small number of electrodes in the vicinity of the target electrode
22) How many surrounding electrodes does a Laplacian Reference use?
Eight Surrounding Electrodes
23) True or False, Sampling Skew can affect the EEG interpretation by making a single event in the data appear to have occurred in the last channel later than in the first channel.
True
24) Per ACNS Guidelines, How many bits per sample should the digitization for an A/D Converter use?
11 bits per sample
25) What are the four Low Frequency Filter and Time Constant Filter equivalencies?
0.1Hz LFF = 1.0s TCF, .3Hz LFF = 0.4s TCF, 1Hz LFF = 0.12s TCF, 5Hz = 0.035s TCF
1) Name the four types of infectious organisms.
Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, Parasitic.
2) Name the two MOST COMMON infectious organisms.
Bacterial and Viral
3) How does Airborne Transmission occur?
Dissemination of particles through the air or dust.
4) Which infection transmission occurs through animals and insects like rats or mosquitoes?
Vector-borne Transmission
5) Why are alcohol-based products preferred over anti-septic for soiled hands?
The Superior Microbiocidal Activity
6) What is an example of an illness transmitted by contact?
Herpes-Simplex virus, Impetigo, Lice, and/or Scabies
7) What is an example of an illness transmitted by airborne microorganisms?
Measles, Varicella, and/or Tuberculosis
8) What is an example of an illness transmitted by droplets?
Influenza, Diphtheria, Mumps, and/or Rubella
9) Define “Cleaning.”
Removal of all visible dust, soil, and any other foreign material
10) Define “Disinfection.”
Destruction of many or all infectious organisms on inanimate objects
11) What are the 4 levels of disinfection recognized by the CDC?
Sterilization, High Level, Intermediate Level, and Low Level.
12) What is low level disinfection used for?
Non-Critical items that are in contact with INTACT skin.
13) What is intermediate level disinfection used for?
Semi-Critical items like thermometers or hydrotherapy tanks.
14) What is high level disinfection used for?
Semi-Critical items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin.
15) What is sterilization used for?
Critical items that enter tissue or vascular space like needles or implants.
16) True or False, A 1:50 dilution means to add one part bleach to fifty parts water.
False (it means add one part bleach to FORTY NINE parts water.)
17) True or False, Bodily fluids are considered NOT INFECTIVE for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease.
True
18) What is the incubation period for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease?
2 years to decades
19) Per END Recommendations, what electrodes should be used when CJD is suspected?
Single Use Electrodes that should be burned after use. If reusable electrodes are used, they should be washed to reduce the amount or particulate material and then sterilized by autoclave.
20) How many Milli-Amps of shock can cause death to your patient?
100-300mA
21) What is the Local Average Reference?
A unique reference for each electrode based off a small number of electrodes in the vicinity of the target electrode
22) How many surrounding electrodes does a Laplacian Reference use?
Eight Surrounding Electrodes
23) True or False, Sampling Skew can affect the EEG interpretation by making a single event in the data appear to have occurred in the last channel later than in the first channel.
True
24) Per ACNS Guidelines, How many bits per sample should the digitization for an A/D Converter use?
11 bits per sample
25) What are the four Low Frequency Filter and Time Constant Filter equivalencies?
0.1Hz LFF = 1.0s TCF, .3Hz LFF = 0.4s TCF, 1Hz LFF = 0.12s TCF, 5Hz = 0.035s TCF
26) Define Bandwidth.
Range between the upper and lower frequencies bounding a range of frequencies
27) True or False, Sleep Spindles are typically seen consistently around 2-3 months Conceptual Age.
True
28) At 5 months Conceptual Age, how many hertz is the background rhythm?
5 Hertz
29) V Waves should be seen by what Conceptual Age is nearly all infants?
5 Months
30) True or False, by 3 years of age, approx. 80% of children have a 8Hz background.
True
31) What is the first thing you should do for a person who is having a Tonic Clonic seizure?
Yell for help
32) True or False, you should restrain a person have a Tonic Clonic seizure.
False (do NOT restrain, clear area)
33) If input ONE is more negative than input TWO, which way will the pen deflect?
Up
34) True or False, a score of 3 or below on the Glasgow Coma Scale is comatose.
False (7, not 3)
35) What is the cut-off frequency?
The input frequency that is attenuated 30% is the same frequency as that of the filter setting.
36) What is the duration of a spike?
20-70msec
37) What is the duration of a sharp?
70-200msec
38) What is the duration of a slow wave?
Greater than 200msec
39) How do you calculate the duration of a wave?
Width of wave in mm divided by paper speed in mm
40) What does proximal mean?
Near the point of attachment
41) What does medial mean?
Towards the midline of body or structure
42) Which montage is best to watch patient sleep?
Transverse Montage
43) Which montage is best during activation procedures?
Double Banana
44) At least how many seconds of DC Calibration should be recorded?
30 seconds
45) True or False, Persistent Focal Beta at any age or level of consciousness is abnormal and indicative of an underlying lesion.
False (Delta, not Beta)
46) What percentage of normal adults do not have Alpha?
10%
47) What is the “squeak phenomenon” and how did it get its name?
The first few seconds after eye closure, alpha frequency is 1-2Hz faster. On analog machines, this increase in speed caused the pen to squeak as it moved
48) What is Artifact sometimes referred to as?
Noise
49) At what frequency does Tremor Artifact occur?
4-6Hz
50) How is electroretinogram Artifact generated?
Activity of retina from the light by photic stimulation
51) True or False, Delta Brushes are rarely seen after 40 weeks.
False (44-46 weeks)
52) What type of seizure is also known as a “Drop Attack.”
Atonic Seizures
53) What are febrile seizures? What age group are they most common?
Tonic Clonic convulsions, associated with high fevers, typically in young children (6mos-5years)
54) What do Versive Seizures cause?
Turning of the body, usually away from the side of the brain the sz discharge is coming from
55) What do Aphasic Seizures cause?
Expressive, repetitive, or global loss of language
56) Name the 3 layers of the meninges.
Pia Mater, Dura Mater, and Arachnoid
57) What is hypersynchrony?
An increase in voltage and regularity of rhythmic activity due to an increase in the number of neural elements contributing to the rhythm
58) True or False, Fast Alpha Variant is half the frequency of the normal Alpha rhythm.
False (Double the Frequency)
59) When is Breach Rhythm seen?
When there is a cranial bone defect like; trauma, craniotomy, or burr holes
60) When does Frontal Arousal Rhythm occur?
After arousal from sleep in children
61) Small Sharp Spikes are also known as what?
BETS – Benign Epileptiform Transients of Sleep
62) Six per Second Spike and Wave is formally known as what?
Phantom Spike and Wave
63) What does EMG stand for?
Electromyogram
64) How long should a neonatal EEG be run?
At least 60 minutes
65) How is Stage 4 Sleep characterized?
50% of the epoch being 2hz delta or less, K Complexes, Sleep Spindles, and rarely POSTs
66) What does SREDA stand for?
Subclinical Rhtyhmical EEG Discharge in Adults
67) Where are V waves seen?
In the Vertex area
68) True or False, Posterior Slow Waves of Youth are reactive to Alpha Blocking?
True
69) Which normal EEG activity can be described by bursts of 4-7Hz activity, notched appearance, faster wave activity superimposed give a sharp pattern, and a surface negative appearance?
Rhythmic Temporal Theta Bursts of Drowsiness (RMTD, RMTTD, RMTTBD)
70) Which normal EEG activity can be described with surface negative fast transients that occur during drowsiness and sleep?
Small Sharp Spikes (SSS)
71) Which normal EEG activity can be described as small spikes followed by a low voltage slow wave occurring approximately 6 seconds?
Six per Second Spike and Wave
72) Which normal EEG activity appears as surface positive spike like bursts in the occipital and posterior temporal regions that MAY be seen approximately every 6 seconds.
Fourteen and/or Six Positive Spikes
73) Which normal EEG activity has a similar arch shape morphology and frequency of Mu?
Wicket Spikes
74) True or False, Fourteen and/or Six Positive bursts are best seen on a montage with longer electrode distances.
True
75) Which normal EEG activity has a negative polarity, occurs in wake/drowsy/asleep, and is RARELY seen?
Wicket Spikes
76) True or False, Lambda Waves have an abnormal clinical significance.
False (No Clinical Significance)
77) Which waveforms have a similar appearance to POSTS?
Lambda Waves
78) Which EEG activity’s occurance is debated as either brain activity OR fine lateral eye movements/fluttering?
Kappa Rhythm
79) Is Breach Rhythm normal or abnormal?
Normal
80) Which normal EEG activity is prominent over the VERTEX and tends to wax and wane?
Midline Theta Rhythm?
81) Which normal EEG activity occurs after lesions of the visual pathway anterior to the occipital cortex early in life?
Occipital Spikes of Blind Persons
82) Frontal Arousal Rhythm occurs in trains of how many HZ?
7-20Hz
83) Which EEG activity has a notched appearance with varying harmonies and resembles a rhythmic discharge?
Frontal Arousal Rhythm
84) Which Abnormal EEG activity consists of 3 components that alternate about the baseline?
Triphasic Waves
85) Which abnormal EEG activity is associated with comas, and is typically 9-10Hz Alpha but in a central-frontal location?
“Alpha” Coma
86) What does PLEDS stand for?
Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges
87) Which abnormal EEG activity is associated with comas and is typically 12-14 Hz bursts similar to sleep spindles?
“Spindle” Coma
88) Which abnormal EEG activity is seen in temporal regions and associated with complex partial seizures and temporal lobe epilepsy?
TIRDA (Temporal Intermittent Rhythmic Delta Activity)
89) Which abnormal EEG activity includes waves that are usually irregular in shape and have a variable duration without a stable predominant frequency?
PDA (Polymorphic Delta Activity)
90) Which abnormal EEG activity can be described as serial waves of irregular shape, variable duration and amplitude, occurring continuously or intermittently?
ADA (Arrhythmic Delta Activity)
91) Which activity is known for profound attenuation or suppression with no cerebral activity greater than 2 uV?
ECI (Electrocerebral Inactivity) or ECS (Electrocerebral Silence)
92) True or False, Generalized Beta Activity is seen with possible sedative, hypnotic, or anti-anxiety drug use.
False (Generalized Theta Activity)
93) If you see rhythmic activity from the background that is non-reactive and focal OR generalize, which activity would you be looking at?
Rhythmic Hypersynchronous Activity
94) Name the four main frequencies.
Alpha, Beta, Delta, Theta
95) What is the measurement of frequency?
Hertz (Hz)
96) What is the definition of Hertz?
A unit of frequency equal to 1 cycle per second
97) What is the frequency of Alpha?
8-13Hz
98) What is the frequency of Beta?
13Hz and Greater
99) What is the frequency of Theta?
4-7Hz
100) What is the frequency of Delta?
0.5-3.5Hz
101) Is persistent focal delta, at any age or level of consciousness, normal or abnormal?
Abnormal
102) What does persistent focal delta indicate?
An underlying lesion
103) Which frequency can be seen on the EEG with brain tumors, cerebral hemorrhage, metabolic disorders, and epilepsy?
Delta
104) Which frequency is dominant during the FIRST year of life?
Delta
105) Which frequency is rare is a normal awake adult?
Delta
106) Which frequency becomes generalized in deeper sleep?
Theta
107) True of False, Persistent Focal Theta is always normal.
False (Abnormal)
108) What types of medication affect Beta activity?
Benzodiazepenes and Barbituates
109) Which frequency is seen during anxiety or hyperemotional states?
Beta
110) What is the normal amplitude of Alpha?
20-60uV
111) Which frequency waxes and wanes?
Alpha
112) Which frequency becomes more persistent as we age?
Beta
113) True or False, Alpha goes away when awake and alerted.
True
114) Which electrode should always be used in infant EEG Montages?
CZ
115) What are the 3 stages of sleep in infants?
Active Sleep, Quiet Sleep, and Transitional Sleep
116) In infants, when does quiet sleep PRECEED active sleep?
Approximately 4 Months
117) Which 4 physiological monitors should be used in neonate EEG recordings?
EOG, EMG, EKG, and Respiratory
118) True or False, Your eyes should be on the baby 99.9% of the time and your hands should be making continuous notations during the recording.
True
119) If a baby’s eyes are open and alert, is the baby considered awake or asleep?
Awake
120) In newborn sleep, what percentage is active sleep?
50%
121) What is another name for Delta Brushes?
Ripples of Prematurity
122) What is the common name for “Encoches Frontales”?
Frontal Sharp Transients
123) By what age should you have a 10Hz background?
10 Years Old
124) At what age do you begin to see V-Waves?
5 Months
125) At approximately what age should sleep spindles be synchronous?
2 Years Old
126) When does Hypnogogic Hypersynchrony occur?
When Falling Asleep/Drowsy
127) When does Hypnapompic Hypersynchrony occur?
When Waking up/Alerting
128) Which activation procedure may bring out Posterior Slow Waves of Youth?
HV
129) In what age group does a good photic driving response occur at flash rates of 8-16Hz?
6-12 Years Old
130) When does Mu first appear?
3-5 Years Old
131) Fourteen and/or Six Positive Bursts occur commonly in what age group?
6-12 Years Old
132) True or False, V-Waves have a positive polarity. a) False (Negative)
133) In 1958, who was credited with the final version of the 10-20 System?
H. Jasper
134) Name the four landmarks of the 10-20 system.
Nasion, Inion, Left-PreAricular, Right-PreAricular
135) List the electrode positions following the circumferential plane.
Fp1, F7, T3, T5, O1, O2, T6, T4, F8, Fp2
136) List the electrode positions following the parietal plane.
T5, P3, PZ, P4, T6
137) According to Guideline 6, which montages must be used in a recording?
Bi-Polar and Referential
138) According to Guideline 6, which 3 classes of montage must be used in each recording?
Longitudinal Bipolar, Transverse Bipolar, and Referential
139) What criteria should you follow when creating bipolar derivations?
Straight and Unbroken lines with equal interelectrode distances
140) How do we localize in a bipolar montage?
Phase Reversal
141) Who is known as the Father of EEG?
Hans Berger
142) Who discovered Delta and Theta waves?
Grey Walter
143) Who discovered Alpha and Beta waves?
Hans Berger
144) How do we localize in a referential montage?
Highest Amplitude
145) Who did the first EEG on the intact skull of a man?
Hans Berger
146) In which state of the patient should you NOT use Cz as a reference electrode?
Drowsy or Sleep
147) If input ONE is -60uV and input TWO is +20uV, which direction will the pen deflect?
Up
148) What is the formula for sensitivity?
Sensitivity = Voltage/Amplitude
149) What units are used to measure sensitivity?
uV/mm
150) What is the standard paper speed?
30mm/sec or 10 second epoch
151) When should you run calibration signals?
At the beginning and end of the recording
152) An adequate screen and paper display should have a minimum of how many pixels per vertical millimeter?
4 pixels
153)In Analog to Digital conversion, what does the computer convert and store waveforms as?
Binary Digits
154) True or False, Montage reformatting is only possible if the data is initially recorded in a referential format.
True
155) Name the four primary aspects of digital data collection that dictate signal reproduction quality.
Horizontal resolution, Vertical resolution, Sampling skew, and Screen resolution
156) What does the ACNS recommend as a sufficient sampling rate?
At least 3 times the highest frequency filter setting
157) A 12 bit A/D converter allows for how many discreet voltage values?
4096
158) What are the 2 forms of protection the body has against electrocution?
Skin and tissue around the heart
159) Does “let go” current cause voluntary or involuntary contraction of the muscle?
Involuntary
160) What does GFCI stand for in regards to an electrical safety device?
Ground Fault Current Interrupter
161) What numerical value does “MILLI-“ represent?
1000
162) While recording, if you wanted to emphasize a slow wave would you speed up or slow down the paper speed?
Slow Down
163) What is the most common High Frequency Filter used?
70Hz
164) The decay time constant is the measure of how long a circuit takes to decay to what percentage of its full charge?
37%
165) What affect will a shorter time constant have on lower frequencies?
It will attenuate them
166) At a standard paper speed of 30mm/sec, how much time is represented between the dotted/thin lines?
200msecs
167) What is another name for “Gran Mal” Seizures?
Tonic Clonic
168) What are the two basic types of primary generalized seizures?
Tonic Clonic and Absence
169) During a Tonic Clonic event, which artifact will obscure the EEG recording?
Muscle and/or Movement
170) What is the former name for Absence Seizure?
Petit Mal
171) What type of pattern would you expect to see on a recording during an Absence Seizure?
High Voltage 3Hz Spike and Wave
172) During hyperventilation, a tech begins asking the patient to remember a name, color, number, rhyme, etc. What did that tech see on the recording to prompt asking those questions?
A Spike and Wave
173) Atonic seizures are typically manifested by a sudden loss of what?
Muscle Tone
174) What happens to the body during the TONIC phase of the seizure?
Stiffening of the Muscles
175) What happens to the body during the CLONIC phase of the seizure?
Repetitive Jerks or Movements
176) True or False, A photoconvulsive response during photic stimulation is a form of reflex epilepsy.
True
177) What are breath holding spells?
Anoxia due to not breathing
178) What term would you use to describe the state of a patient who is having back to back seizures without regaining consciousness in between them?
Status Epilepticus
179) What is the most common seizure disorder among infants and young children?
Febrile Seziures
180) Which type of seizure involve the entire brain and are associated with a sudden loss of consciousness?
Primary Generalized Seizures
181) What is another term for infantile spasm?
Jack-Knife Seizure
182) True or False, A versive movement turns toward the same side as the seizure focus.
False (Away from the side of seizure focus)
183) In a patient with Landau-Kleffner Syndrome, What region would you expect to inter-ictal spikes or inter-ictal spike and waves?
Temporal
184) What frequency would you expect to see during the CLONIC phase of a seizure?
2-3Hz
185) What is “Inter-Ictal”
Period in between seizures, usually precedes them.
186) What is “Ictal”
The seizure phase
187) What is “Post-Ictal”
After the seizure
188) What frequency would you expect to see during the TONIC phase of a seizure?
6-10Hz
189) Name 2 of the 6 characteristics that epilepsy syndromes are based on.
Type of seizure, EEG, age at onset, neuroimaging, physical exam, and/or natural history
190) Define Idiopathic
No known cause
191) What type of EEG pattern would you expect to see in a patient with West Syndrome?
Hypsarrythmia
192) Name the 3 parts that compose an atom.
Proton, Neutron, and Electron
193) State Ohm’s Law
E=IxR
194) What is a capacitor?
A device used to store a quantity of electricity temporarily
195) What is resistance measured in?
Ohms
196) What is common mode rejection?
Ability of the amplifier to suppress a signal that is present at both electrodes
197) What is peak to peak amplitude?
Measure of the height of a wave from the point where it begins to rise to the point where is reaches maximum height
198) What is frequency and how do you figure it out?
Number of waves that fit into a one second segment. Figured by (take any or all of these): counting, or paper speed in mm divided by width of wave in mm, or 1/duration
199) What is duration and how do you figure it out?
Amount of time a wave takes to form. Figured by (take any or all of these): counting, width of wave in mm divided by paper speed, or 1/frequency
200) Name 3 of the 5 metals most commonly used in routine EEGs.
Silver, Tin, Platinum, Gold-Plated, or Silver-Silver Chloride (AG-AG CL)