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141 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
Hydraulic
Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surfaces?
Ailerons
What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
Rocket motor
t/f? In an emergency situation the aux bat will power the BFI for 15 minutes.
False. The aux bat will power the BFI for 30 minutes
Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
24v battery
Which aircraft system provides automatic temp and pressurization control?
Environmental control system
Control of the transponder is provided by what component?
Up Front Control Panel (UFCP)
T/F? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
Attitude Direction Indicator
In the event of inadvertent a/c contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
The ELT senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 & 243.0 MHz or 121.5 & 406.0 MHz.
The primary aircraft flight controls consist of
ailerons, elevator, and rudder
Which of the following best describes the function of the aircraft's elevator?
the elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch access
The aileron ground adjustable trim tabls are for mx use only and shold not be tampered with by the aircrew.
TRUE
Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
Provides higher stick forces and G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
Which of the following in NOT included in the rudder control system?
Bobweight
T/F: Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed on the right aileron.
FALSE
The Trim Aid Device (TAD) computer relays trim input to the ___.
rudder trim tab actuator
The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until ___ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
80
A green TAD OFF advisory will illuminate when
the TRIM AID switch is set to off
The flight control gust lock is used to ___.
prevent excess wear and damage to the primary flight controls
The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hyd system to which of the following?
3000 psi+/-120 psi
The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
Landing Gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nose wheel steering, and speed brake
What is true about the power package reservior?
A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
the primary hyd system's selector manifold contains which of the following?
electrical selector valves
Two specific conditions in which the emergency hyd system is used are:
Loss of engine power and the a/s < 120 KIAS
The emergency hyd system specifically operates which of the following?
Landing Gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
The emergency package receives its pressure form which of the following?
From the emergency accumulator
Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the ___
a/s below 150 KIAS
The amber EHYD PX LO advisory means which of the following?
pressure in the emergency package is below 2870 psi
The HYD FL LO advisory means which of the following?
Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt
When the power package slide valve closes, the hyd pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the ___.
nose wheel steering actuator
Which is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?
the NWS is separate from the selector manifold
Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
The NWS will not operate if the primary hyd system fails.
Which component specifically ensures the nose wheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
Centering valve
Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in ___.
Directional control problems due to increasing sensitivity
What are the functions of the speed brake?
Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
Which is true regarding the speed brake?
It will not oper4ate using the emergency system.
Which of the following will NOT cause the speed brake to retract?
The gear is retracted.
If the flap indicator fails how can flap extension be confirmed?
Observing a slight nose up tendency
Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
Emerg flap operation IS NOT available when the aux bat is the only source of electrical power.
Which is true regarding the parking brake?
The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
150 KIAS
Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
Master cylinder
The elevator controls the aircraft around what axis?
The lateral (pitch) axis
The ailerons move opposite each other to cause the aircraft to move about which axis?
the longitudinal (roll) axis
the rudder causes a yaw movement around the ___ axis.
Vertical (yaw)
A "ground-adjustable" trim tab is found on ___.
the ailerons
What are the factors used by the TAD computer to calculate proper rudder trim tab settings?
engine torque, altitude, airspeed, pitch rate
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until ___.
the a/c accelerates to 80 KIAS and there is no weight on wheels
The primary and emergency hydraulic systems are pressurized to what level?
3000+/-120 psi
What is the function of the hydraulic system engine-driven pump?
It creates hyd pressure that is transferred to the primary system and to the emergency accumulator
The emergency hydraulic system services which aircraft components?
Landing gear, main gear inboard door & flaps, for a one-time extension
When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension sequence?
main gear inboard doors
What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
The gear doors are not closed, or PCL is approaching idle with gear
What happens to nose wheel steering if the hyd system fails?
NWS will not operate because it is services by primary hyd system?
What happens to the speed brake if the hyd system fails?
Speed brake will not operate
The flaps should not be operated above airspeed?
150 KIAS
When completing a sharp turn, how should nose wheel steering be used?
NWS should be turned off prior to turn since NWS will try to limit NW caster
what causes the EHYD PX LO CAS advisory to illuminate?
If emerg accum pressure is less than 2400 psi +/- 150 psi
Will you have use of the speed brake with the emergency hydraulic system?
No. Emergency system services only gear, main gear inboard doors & flaps
Can you expect to use the wheel brakes if operating with a failure of the primary hydraulic system?
Yes. Wheel brake system is separate from primary & emergency hyd systems.
All of the following statements are true. Which one best describes the purpose of the UFCP?
The UFCP provides data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of dispalys and subsystems
the data entry knob on the lower panel
increments numerical values (clockwise rotation); decrements numerical values (ccw); is used to select alpha characters; has a push-to-select function
The Priority Function Buttons (PFB's), located ___ provide control of ___ and include the CLR, ENT, RTN and DIR hardkeys.
on the right side of the upper panel; the major functions of the FMS
A left-facing filed triangle left justified in a data display window indicates the window ___.
is active for data entry
From the persistent display the ___ cn be viewed or changed.
UHF, VHF COMM, VHF NAV, XPNDR mode and code
Pressing the ___ priority function button (PFB) toggles through the available NAVAIDS.
NAV TUNE
There are ___ levels of systems (SYS) pages. The ___ page provides access to TCAS and declutter settings.
three; display
The following statements describle MFD/UFCP functionality. Which statement is false?
When REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the PRT FWD status advisory appears in the crew alerting system (CAS) display.
The RPT ERR status advisory appears in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display. This means ___.
the REPEAT switch is in the REPEAT position but the UFCP and MFDs are not in the repeat mode.
A yellow UFCP 1 FAIL caution advisory appears in the CAS display. This means the forward UFCP:
is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed.
Which system is NOT integrated with the T-6B integrated avionics system?
Backup Flight Instrument (BFI)
T/F: The Primary Flight Display (PFD) contains all of the instruments required for the primary instrument scan.
TRUE
The primary pitot probe at the right wingtip and primary static ports on the sides of the aft fuselage provide necessary pressure ot the ___.
Air Data Computer (ADC)
How do you slected declutter level 1 (DCLTR 1)?
Use the UFCP
The altimeter barometric setting data can be set in which format(s)?
Inches of Hg and Millibars
What are the two main sections of the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
Primary flight instruments; Horizontal Situation Indicator
The Backup Flight Instrument (BFI) includes which one of the following indications?
Airspeed indicator
When the navigation source is selected to FMS, the course deviation indicator shows deviation from the ___.
desired track
What are the three phases of flight generated by the FMS?
Enroute, terminal, approach
Which radio navigation system transmits a unique pulse-pair signature that is received by a ground station and is then retransmitted back to the aircraft?
DME
The "G" meter gauge and pointer indicates instantaneous normal acceleration in the range from ___ .
-4.0g to + 7.5g
To perform a count up with the digital clock, the display must be set to the ___ function.
elapsed time
The annunciator placarded FDR near the firewall shutoff handle in the front cockpit will light MAINT in the upper half or ___ in the lower half.
FAIL
AoA information is provided on the AoA indexer when
the landing gear is down and locked.
When a flashing master caution or master warning switchlight is reset, the associated msg in the CAS on the IICAS display will ___ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.
remain steady
Which is the default MFD with the a/c on the ground (weight on wheels), avionics master switch off, and the battery switch on?
EICAS
Warning tones generated by the Audio Management Unit (AMU) are routed to the ___.
helmet audio connections
The white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA indicator designates
max range angle of attack
The dta transfer module (DTM) is a ___ used for digital information storage, loading, and retrival.
portable memory cartridge
A slow approach speed is indicated by the ___.
upper green chevron on the AOA indexer
The master mode primarily used for flight data, steering, navigation, landing, and advisory information is the ___ mode.
NAV
Which HUD symbol is your best indication of where the aircraft is actually going?
FPM
When will the glideslope and localizer reference be displayed?
When ILS freq is selected; when the nav source is ILS; when the master mode is NAV
Bank angle reference marks on the HUD are located at ___ degrees.
10, 20, 30 and 45
When will the Climb Dive Marker (CDM) align with the center tick mark of the AOA bracket?
When AOA is optimal for landing; when the landing gear is down
The audio control panel is located in the ___ in each cockpit.
front lower panel, between the pilot's legs
The ground crew indterphone is activated ___.
when the bat switch in either cockpit is switched on.
The UFCP controls the UHF and VHF as follows:
UHF (COM 1 button); VHF (COM 2 button)
Where is the standby VHF radio located?
right console in the ront cockpit
When you select COM1 on the UFCP, which of the windows allows you to select T/R, TR+G, or G for the UHF radio?
W3
UHF radio direct tuning is accomplished by ___ .
pressing th W2 arrow key, then using the UFCP DATA ENTRY knob to scroll through the frequencies.
The FMS allows the T-6B aircraft to store up to ___ presets in the COM library for the VHF or the UHF radios.
99
Which of the following units control the tuning of the UHF, VHF and VOR?
UFCP
The UHF squelch setting is normally ___ (initial and cold start default value).
ON
How is the standby VHF radio channel tuned?
Normally 5 kHz (US) or 5 KHz and 8.33 kHz tuning (aircraft deployed overseas).
What is the main operational difference between the UHF radio and the VHF radio?
The VHF radio doesn't monitor guard; you must dial it up manually.
What is the range of the XPNDR/IFF mode 3 code?
0000-5555
The DME system displays ___ from the aircraf to the ground station.
slant range distance in nautical miles
The LOC and GS deviation scales appear on the ADI when the Primary Flight Display source (PFD SOURCE) is set to LOC and ___.
a LOC freq is tuned
The 000 radial of each VOR station is oriented to ___.
mag north
Automatic altitude reporting is provided by transponder mode ___.
C
When you tune a LOC freq using the UFCP, the nav radio tuning system automatically set the associated ___.
DME and GS frequencies
The TCAS non-threat traffic symbol is a ___ and the traffic advisory traffic symbol is a ___.
unfilled whte diamond; filled yellow circle
The freq 110.__ is a LOC setting
30
Pressing the ___ button on the UFCP transmits a special pulse to aid in immediate ID on a controller's scope
ID
the TCAS detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating their XPNDR's and then analyzing the replies to determine range, bearing and relative ___.
altitude
Read-only navigation chart information is stored in the FMS ___ database.
navigation
The FMS determines aircraft position by combining data from ___.
GLS, IRS, and ADC true airspeed and altitude
FMS dataa and management functions are controlled using the ___.
UFCP and MFD FMS pages.
What is the primary page used to display and modify the flight plan?
LEGS
Which page provdes access to communication and navigation radio system management?
FREQ
What are the three operational modes for the ADI and HSI?
enroute, approach and composite
The VSI displays vertical velocity from 0 to ___ feet per minute.
+/- 6000
From what component does the airspeed indicator receive its data?
air data computer
What indication on the UFCP will alert you to a possible failure of the transponder?
an X displays in the first character position of the UFCP persistent display in W4.
The Backup flight instruments are normally powered by the ___.
battery bus
When showing, what does the red indication in the standby turn and bank indicator mean?
fail?
When does the AOA amber donut illuminate?
When you have achieved optimum angle of attack range for landing (on-speed).
What is the purpose of the two resettable needles on the accelerometer?
Record maximum deviation above and below +1G experienced during flight
What is the first component you should check when you suspect an avionics failure?
circuit breaker
What happens anytime the FIRE warning annunciator illuminates?
MASTER WARN switchlight flashes, MASTER WARN tone sounds
What indications can be illuminated on the flight data recorder annunciator?
MAINT (green) FAIL (yellow)
What is the primary means of tuning VHF NAV and comm frequencies?
primarily through the UFCP
What are the four fields on the UFCP persistent page?
UHF COMM, VHF COMM, VHF NAV, XPNDR
What is the purpose of the ICS KEY/MUTE button?
mutes all incoming audio while allowing inter-cockpit communication
How is the range display changes on the NACWS fraffic display?
UP/DN range LSK's on the NAV display
where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6B?
vert stab
Which ILS component operates at 75 MHz and indicates your location along the approach path?
Marker beacons
What is the range of the DME?
reliable up to 199 miels slant range depending upon aircraft altitude
What should you do if the controller directs you to squawk altitude?
Set the XPNDER to ALT on the UFCP and press the ID PFB