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177 Cards in this Set

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passive immunity

immunity that occurs by administration of an antibody produced by another individual

active immunity

immunity that occurs by an animals own immune response after exposure to a foreign antigen

two forms of active immunity

wild (exposure) and immunization (controlled exposure through vaccination)

considerations for preventative health care

health and age


type of vaccine given


route of administration


concurrent incubation of infectious dz


exposure to an infectious dz before immunity


drug therapy (ex. prednisone suppresses immunity)


immune mediated disorders

what is the most common route of administration for vaccination?

subcutaneous

what is the vaccine related sarcoma rate in cats?

1 in 10,000

what vaccinations are placed in the intrascapular area?

NONE

what vaccinations are placed in the right rear?

rabies and feline leukemia

where are vaccinations given that do not have a pre-determined destination?

right shoulder

where on the limb should vaccines be given

as far down as possible

what two vaccines are most highly linked to sarcomas in cats?

rabies


feline leukemia


where are all cattle vaccines given?

virchow's triangle on the neck

what is the withdrawal time post vaccine in meats?

21- 60 days

what does a vaccine create immunity to?

a virus

what does a bacterin create immunity to?

bacteria

what does a toxoid create immunity to?

toxin

types of vaccines for active immunity?

Inactivated (killed)


Live


Modified Live


Recombinant


Toxiod

what type of animal is a live vaccine most likely to be used on?

feed animals and poultry

passive immunity vaccine types

antitoxin


antiserum

what are mixed vaccines

polyvalent, bivalent etc.

what are autogenous vaccines

antigens from an outbreak in a location are used to vaccinate animals within that location

what does it mean when a live vaccine is virulent? Avirulent?

Virulent: can still cause the disease


Avirulent: cannot cause the disease

What are the advantages of an inactivated (killed or dead)vaccine

very safe


stable in storage


unlikely to cause disease

What are the disadvantages of an inactivated (killed or dead) vaccine?

require repeated doses $$$


adjuvants- more likely to have a reaction


more preservatives

advantages of using a live vaccine

fast immune response


only one dose needed (inexpensive)


no adjuvants (less allergenic)


disadvantages of using a live vaccine

accidental exposure could cause dz in humans


poor stability- shorter shelf life


may be virulent

give some examples of live vaccines

brucella abortus- cattle


contagious ecthyma- ruminants


bordetella bronchiseptica

what is a modified live vaccine (MLV) (attenuated)

a live vaccine that has lost it's virulence but can still create immunity


advantages of a modified live/attenuated vaccine

effective for many viruses


fast and long lasting immunity

disadvantages of a modified live/ attenuated vaccine

abortion in pregnant animals


mild immunosuppression


more preservatives


residual virulence- mild dz formation


examples of modified live/ attenuated vaccines?

FVRCP


Bovi- Shield 4- IBR, BVD, PI3, bovine respiratory syncytial virus

What are the three types of recombinant vaccines

Type 1: gene cloning


Type 2: gene deleted


Type 3: vectored

explain gene cloning recombinant type of vaccines

a gene is inserted into an organism and reproduces


the antigenic product is extracted, purified and used as a vaccine

explain the gene deleted type of recombinant vaccines

the vaccine is genetically attenuated by deleting the gene from the pathogen

explain the vactored type of recombinant vaccine

uses a non pathogenic virus or bacterium to transport immunity to a disease

Advantages of using recombinant vaccines

fewer adverse effects


effective immunity


gene cloning and vectored cannot become virulent


possibility for oral administration

what types of recombinant vaccines cannot revert back to virulence?

gene cloning and vectored

define immunogenicity

ability to provoke an immune response

how is a toxoid prepared?

a toxin is treated with heat or chemicals to eliminate it's virulence without altering it's immunogenicity

what is an anaculture

a vaccine combining a toxoid and a killed bacterium

how often do toxoids need to be administered

anually

give some examples of toxoid vaccines

tetanus and perfringens in horses and cattle

what does it mean to be vaccinated?

received the injection


does not mean that immunity has developed

what does it mean to be immunized?

it means that immunity has developed


titers (antibodies) have developed

what is an antitoxin

- a specific antiserum


- contains antibodies extracted from the blood of an immune animal


- it neutralizes toxins produced by microorganisms


advantages of an antitoxin

- provides immediate passive immunity


- preservatives = shelf life

disadvantages of an antitoxin

- contains preservatives


- short lived (7-10 days)


- can have potential side effects (ex. equine serum hepatits)

What is an antiserum

a vaccination containing antibodies from a hyperimmunized animal or an animal infected with a microorganism

advantages of antiserum

- immediate passive immunity


- preservatives = shelf life

disadvantages of antiserum

- contains preservatives


- kills living infectious agents (will kill a vaccination)


- immunity is short lived

how long do you have to wait to vaccinate after giving an antiserum

21 days

what two products produce passive immunity

antitoxins and antiserums

How are vaccines administered to individually owned small animals?

subcutaneous


intramuscular


intranasal/ intraocular


oral


how are vaccines administered to flocks/herds of production animals

(less effective for the individual's immunity)


oral- in feed or water


aerosolized- inhaled

what are some causes for vaccine failure

improper handling, storage or administration

how long does it take for immunity to develop generally?


in a youth?

10- 14 days in adults


4-5 months of age in youth

what does it mean if an animal is considered "protected"

they had exposure to the disease/ infectious agent and did not fall ill (think chicken pox parties)

what branch of immunity does a titers test check

humoral

what are immunostimulants

- products that stimulate the general immune system


- stimulate macrophages, produce lymphokines, increase natural killer cell activity (T cells)

examples of immunostimulants

- acemannan (a complex carbohydrate)


- staphylococcal Phage Lysate (immuno modulator)


- propionibacterium acnes bacterin


- mycobacterial cell wall fraction

what are some types of adverse vaccine responses?

- residual virulence/toxicity


- allergic reactions


- disease caused in immunosuppressed animals


- effects on fetus/abortion


- pain on injection, fever/ lethargy and soreness


- hypersensitivity

why is it important to know the health status and reproductive status of an animal before vaccinating?

to prevent adverse vaccine reactions such as causing disease in immunosuppressed animals or causing abortion or birth defects

What are some sypersensitivities that can be seen as a result of a vaccine?

- Anaphylaxis: vomiting, hypersalivation, dyspnea, incoordination, pale mm, collapse


- Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (never vaccinate again)


- Urticaria (hives)


- Angioneurotic adema (face swelling)


- vaccine related fibrosarcomas

what can be done to prevent urticaria/ edema from vaccine reaction?

pretreat with antihistamines

what is the nervous system?

the body's primary communication and control center


it allows an animal to respond and adapt to its environment and to maintain a constant internal environment

what is meant by homeostasis

maintaining a constant internal environment

functions of the nervous system

- sensory input


- integrative- info is computed to make the body respond


- motor

What are the two parts of the nervous sytem

Central Nervous system (rapid/ electrical)


Endocrine system (slower/ chemical)

what does the hypothalamus do?

it's the CNS' way of exerting control over the endocrine system via the pituitary gland

What do Afferent nerves do?

carry information from the body to the CNS

what do efferent nerves do?

carry information from the CNS to the body

What are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system?

autonomic and somatic

what does the autonomic nervous system do

carries information from the CNS to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands

what are the two branches of the autonomic nervous system?

sympathetic (adrenergic)


and


parasympathetic (cholinergic)

What are cholinergic receptors

acetylcholine and catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

what is a neuron

- a nerve cell


- fundamental unit of all branches and divisions of the nervous system

what do axons do?

carry electrical impulses away from the nerve cell


one per nerve cell

what do dendrites do?

carry electrical impulses to the nerve cell


many per nerve cell

what is the cerebrum responsible for?

learning, memory, interpretation of sensory input

what is the thalamus responsible for?

relay center for sensory impulses from the spinal cord, brain stem and cerebellum to the cerebrum, pain perception

what is the hypothalamus responsible for

- it's the mediator between the nervous system and the endocrine system


- controls the pituitary gland


- controls and regulates the autonomic nervous system

what is the medulla responsible for

- carries both sensory and motor impulses between the brain and spinal cord


- vital functions: breathing, heart beat, blood pressure, vomiting, swallowing, coughing, temperature, hunger, thirst, etc.

what is the reticular system responsible for

functions to arouse the cerebral cortex and is responsible for consciousness, sleep and wakefulness


(cannot have pain without consciousness)

What is the autonomic nervous system responsible for

innervation of smooth muscle, heart muscle, salivary glands and other viscera

what type of receptors does the parasympathetic nervous system use?

cholinergic

what type of receptors does the sympathetic nervous system use?

adrenergic

what type of nerve fibers do the adrenal medulla, sweat glands and hair follicles have

only sympathetic

What are the types of adrenergic receptors

- alpha 1


- alpha 2


- beta 1


- beta 2


- dopaminergic

what are the primary neurotransmitters used in the sympathetic nervous system?

- norepinephrine


- epinephrine


- dopamine

what are the cholinergic receptors

- nicotinic


- muscarinic

what is the primary neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system?

acetylcholine

how do drugs affect the autonomic nervous system?

- mimic neurotransmitters


- interfere with neurotransmitter release


- block the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors


- interfere with the breakdown or reuptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse (causing an increase of that neurotransmitter)

What do cholinergic agents do?

- Parasympathomimetic: mimic acetacholine


- stimulate receptor sites mediated by acetylcholine by mimicking or delaying breakdown of acetylcholine

what are cholinergic agents used for?

- diagnose myasthenia gravis


- reduce intraoccular pressure


- stimulate gi motility


- treat urinary retention


- control vomiting


- as an antidote for neuromuscular blockers

what are the side effects of cholinergic agents?

- bradycardia


- hypotension


- heart block


- lacrimation


- d/v/increased intestinal activity/ intestinal rupture


- increased bronchiole secretions

list the direct cholinergic agents (mimic aceticholine)

- bethanechol aka urecholine (increase motility and bladder contraction)


- pilocarpine (reduces intra occular pressure)


- metoclopramide aka reglan (controls vomit and promotes gastric emptying)

list the indirect cholinergic agents (anticholinesterase- breaks down aceticholine)

- Edrophonium- diagnosis of myasthenia gravis


- organophosphates- insectiside dips


- pyridostigmine- treats myasthenia gravis

what do anticholinergics do

they block the parasympathetic nervous system

what are the usues of anticholinergic agents (belladonna alkaloids)

- treatment of diarrhea and vomiting


- preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia


- dilate pupil for opthalmic exam


- relieve ciliary spasm of the eye


- treat sinus bradycardia


what are the side effects of anticholinergics

(related to dose)


- drowsiness/ disorientation


- tachycardia


- photophobia (dilated pupils)


- constipation


- anxiety


- burning at injection site

Common Anticholinergics

Atropine (preanesthetic)


Glycopyrrolate (expensive preanesthetic)

What do adrenergic (sympathomimetic) agents do

- stimulate heart beat in cardiac arrest


- reverse hypotension + bronchioconstriction


- strengthen heart during CHF


- correct hypotension + reduce capillary bleeding through vasoconstriction


- treat urinary incontinence


- reduce mucous membrane congestion (allergies)


- prolong effects of anesthetic agents


- treat glaucoma

what are catecholamines

adrenergic/ sympathomimetic agents

what catecholamine is most often used to stimulate the heart in cardiac arrest

epinephrine

What does CHF stand for

congestive heart failure

side effects of catecholamines (adrenergic agents)

- tachycardia


- hypertension


- nervousness


- cardiac arrhythmias


- pulmonary edema

common adrenergic agents (catecholamines)

- epinephrine (alpha)/ norepinephrine (beta)


- Phenylpropanolamine (alpha)- for urinary incontinence in dogs


- terbutaline (brethine) and albuterol (proventil) (beta) for bronchiodialation

what do adrenergic blocking agents do

either block alpha or beta receptors in the sympathetic nervous system

list common Alpha blockers

- acepromazine: tranquilizer, vasodilator


- prazosin (minipress): vasodilator


- yohimbine: antidote for xylazine


- atipamezole (antisedan): reversal for dex

side effects of alpha blockers

hypotension


tachycardia


muscle tremors


seizures

list common beta blockers

- atenolol, propanolol, sotalol (for arrhythmias)


- timolol (glaucoma)

side effects of beta blockers

bradycardia


hypotension


worsening heart failure


bronchoconstriction


heart block


syncope

what do depressants do?

- tranquilize: sedate for restraint or anesthetic procedures


- control pain


- induce anesthesia


- prevent or control seizures

what are CNS drugs used for

- depressants


- reverse effects of depressants


- stimulate cns for cardiac or respiratory depression/arrest


- euthanasia

What are the four main groups of tranquilizers

- phenothiazine derivatives (the zines)


- Benzodiazapine Derivatives (the pams)


- Xylazine Hydrochloride


- Dexmedetomidine Hydrochloride

what are phenothiazine derivatives used for?

- sedation/tranquilization


- reduce fear and anxiety


- NOT an analgesic


- help alleviate motion sickness


- help to treat mild puritis

side effects of phenothiazine derivatives

hypotension


hypothermia


seizures in epileptics

common phenothiazine derivatives

Acepromazine maleate


chlorpromazine hydrochloride (thorazine)

why can phenothiazine derivatives not be used in stallions?

can cause permanent penile prolapse

uses for bezodiazepine derivatives

- sedation


- anxiety and behavioral disorders


- muscle relaxation


- appetite stimulant (cats)


- short term anticonvulsant


- injectable anesthetic (minimal CNS depression)

common benzodiazepine derivatives

- Diazepam (valium): light sensitive + absorbed by plastic


- midazolam (versed)


- alprazolam (xanax)


- Lorazapam (ativan)

what type of tranquilizer is most commonly used in horses?

xylazine hydrochloride

uses of xylazine hydrochloride

- sedative


- mild analgesic


- muscle relaxant


- short acting anesthesia (when mixed)


- extra label use for cesareans in cattle

what antagonizes xylazine hydrochloride

yohimbine

uses of dexmedetomidine hydrochloride

- sedative (usually with Torb)


- pre anesthetic


- analgesic in small animals

common dexmedetomidine hydrochloride

dexdomitor (alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist)

what reverses dexdomitor/ dexmedotomidine hydrochloride?

antisedan (antipamezole)

side effects of dexdomitor/ dexmedetomidine hydrochloride

bradycardia


AV block


decreased respirations


hypertension


vomiting


muscle tremors


hypersensitivity to noise and sound

What do dissociative agents do

- alter neurotransmitter activity


- depress the thalamus and cerebral cortex


- stimulate the limbic system


causing: muscle rigidity, amnesia and analgesia

what are dissociative agents used for?

- restraint or sedation for diagnostic procedures


- analgesia


- anesthesia for minor surgery


- abdominal surgery when combined with other agents

are dissociative agents controlled?

YES

side effects of dissociative agents

- ataxia


- hyperresponsive


- tremors, spasticity, convulsions


-hallucinations


- respiratory depression


- burning on IM injection


- drying of cornea

common dissociative agents

Ketamine


Tiletamine


Telazol- Tiletamine + zolazepam

What are Opioid Agonists used for?

analgesia


sedation


restraint


anesthesia


treatment of coughing


diarrhea


side effects of opioid agonists

resperatory depression


excitement


nausea


vomiting


diarrhea


defecation


panting


convulsions

are opioid agonists controlled

YES

Common opioid agonists

- Morphine + Oxymorphone (pain control)


- Butorphanol (short acting pre- op anesthesia or for cough)


- Fentanyl (oipioid and tranquilizer)


- Hydrocodone (cough suppressant)


- Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) GI effects


- Apomorphone (induces vomiting)


- Codeine (w/tylenol for dogs who can't take NSAIDS)


- Buprenorphine (buprenex) oral for cats


- Tramadol

when giving cats an oral injection of buprenorphine what is it important to remember

make sure to give it close to the front of the mouth so it reaches the mucus membranes

what do opioid antagonists do?

bind with opiate receptors, to displace the opioid agonists


prevent opioid agonists from bonding to the site

Common opioid antagonists

Naloxone- reversal agent for opioid overdose


Butorphanol

What are Barbiturates used for

Euthanasia agents


sedative (old)


general anesthetic (old)

disadvantages of barbiturates

non reversable


metabilised by liver


necrosis of tissue if administered in SQ space


Cns depression/ excitement


cardiovascular depression

long acting barbiturates

Phenobarbital- anti convulsant

are barbiturates controlled

YES

short acting barbiturates

Pentobarbital sodium: euthanasia agent

ultra short acting barbiturates

thiobarbiturates: off market


thiopental (pentothal)


* not for sight hounds of thin animals

Causes of seizures

idiopathic


infectious


traumatic head injury


toxic


metabolic

side effects of anti seizure drugs

drowsiness


cns depression


anxiety


agitation


PU/PD


hepatotoxicity

common anti seizure drugs

- Diazepam/ Valium (emergency)


- Pheobarbital


- Potassium Bromide (often used w/ phenobarbital)


- Gabapentin/ Neurontin (used for pain in small animal and anti seizure in humans)


- Levetriacetam/ Keppra (new)


- Zonisamide/ Zonegran (new)

What is Propofol

- the only white injectable drug


- "milk of amnesia"- short acting hypnotic


- rapid, smooth anesthetic induction


- does not cross placental barrier


- fairly gentle on the heart

uses for propofol

- anesthetic induction


- outpatient procedures

side effects of Propofol

- apnea


- seizure like signs (excitable stage)


- Heinze body anemia + prolonged recovery times (when used too often in cats)

two formulations for propofol

Macroemulsion (discarded same day)


Microemulsion (longer shelf life) propoclear

Three types of inhalant anesthetics

Isoflurane


sevoflurane


Halothane (not often used)

attributes of isoflurane

- pungent odor


- rapid induction and recover time


- does not decrease cardiac output

attributes of sevoflurane

- little odor (ability to use for mask induction)


- rapid induction and recovery time


- expensive


- anesthetic depth changes occur rapidly

attributes of halothane

may result in cardiac dysryhthmias


can cause halothane hepatitis


Three types of anti depressants

- Tricyclics (inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin)


- Serotonin reuptake inhibitors


- monoamine oxidase inhibitors

uses of tricyclics

- separation anxiety


- ocds


- fear aggression


- hypervocalization


- hyperactivity


- urine marking

what is important to do when treating an animal for depression

- use drugs in conjunction with behavior modification


- rule out any underlying disease that may be causing the behavior

side effects of tricyclics

- sedation


- tachycardia


- heart block


- dry mouth


- mydriasis


- KCS

what is mydriasis

dilation of pupils

common tricyclics

- Amitriptyline (Elavil)


- Clomipramine (Clomicalm)

uses for serotonin reuptake inhibitors

- OCDs


- aggression


- anxiety


- phobias

side effects of serotonin reuptake inhibitors

few:


- anorexia


- nausea


- lethargy


- anxiety


- diarrhea


- loss of money...expensive ()

Common saratonin reuptake inhibitors

Fluoxetine (prozac, reconcile)


Sertraline (Zoloft)


Paroxetine (Paxil)


Fuvoxamine (Luvox)

what do monoamine oxidase inhibitors do

block MAO-B which is responsible for the breakdown of dopamine

common Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

Selegiline (anipryl)

uses for monoamine oxidase inhibitors

canine cognitive dysfunction syndrome


cushings dz (only works in 30% of cases)

side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors

v/d


anorexia


restlessness


lethargy


salivation


shaking


deafness

what is it important to check before placing an animal on an antidepressent

what drugs they are already on: antidepressants can be contraindicated by other drugs or other antidepressants

what is the best case scenario for euthanasia agents?

- rapidly produces unconsciousness without struggling, vocalizations or excessive involuntary movement

what is the main component in most euthanasia agents?

pentobarbital sodium

common euthanasia agents?

- Euthasol C3


- Sleepaway C2


- Beuthanasia C3


- Fatal Plus C2

why are euthanasia agents usually brightly colored?

to prevent human error

why does Dr. King recommend pre-medicating an animal before administering a euthanasia agent?

to decrease struggling, tremors etc.


premedding dampens the CNS

are Euthanasia Agents controlled substances?

Yes, their class depends on the combination within the solution C2- C3