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65 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Which standards are used to determine contractor responsibility before making an award to a
contractor?
a. Resources, eligibility, and tax status.
b. Performance record, eligibility, and tax status.
c. Resources, performance record, and eligibility.
d. Performance record, resources, and tax status.
c. Resources, performance record, and eligibility.
A contractor excluded from government contracting for a reasonable, specified period of
time because of conviction on a criminal offense in connection with obtaining a public contract is
a. debarred.
b. ineligible.
c. suspended.
d. unqualified.
a. debarred.
What action should be taken if legal proceedings are not initiated within 12 months after the
date of a suspension notice?
a. Debar the contractor.
b. Terminate the suspension.
c. Suspend the contractor for an additional 12 months.
d. File a complaint with the assistant attorney general.
b. Terminate the suspension.
Which of the following systems is not used in making a determination of contractor
responsibility?
a. Dun and Bradstreet System (D&B).
b. Excluded Parties Listing System (EPLS).
c. Past Performance Information Retrieval System (PPIRS).
d. Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS).
a. Dun and Bradstreet System (D&B).
What action must a contracting officer (CO) take in the absence of information clearly
indicating that a prospective contractor is responsible?
a. Request performance and payment bonds.
b. Document the file and proceed with award.
c. Make a determination of nonresponsibility.
d. Provide the contractor with a neutral rating.
c. Make a determination of nonresponsibility.
What does the Small Business Administration issue as assurance that a small business has
been determined responsible for the purpose of receiving and performing a specific government
contract?
a. 8(a) certification.
b. HUBZone certification.
c. Certificate of Competency (COC).
d. Certificate of Responsibility (COR).
c. Certificate of Competency (COC).
When an offeror proposes more than one product that will meet the government’s need, how
are the offers evaluated?
a. Reject all offers as nonresponsive.
b. Evaluate each product as a separate offer.
c. Review all offers and select only the best value for evaluation.
d. Evaluate the low bid and return other proposals to the contractor.
b. Evaluate each product as a separate offer.
Prepare the award of commercial items on the
a. SF 33.
b. SF 1442.
c. SF 1449.
d. DD 1155.
c. SF 1449.
To the maximum extent possible, purchase orders for commercial items should include only
those clauses required to implement provisions of law, or executive order, and
a. the clauses prescribed by FAR Part 13.
b. those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing Air Force practice.
c. those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing commercial practice.
d. the clauses prescribed by Department of Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement
(DFARS) for simplified acquisition procedures.
c. those clauses that are determined to be consistent with prevailing commercial practice.
The simplified acquisition procedures of FAR Part 13 may be combined with FAR Part 12,
Commercial Procedures, for
a. construction acquisitions.
b. acquisitions requiring certified cost or pricing data.
c. acquisitions up to the simplified acquisition threshold.
d. any commercial acquisition regardless of dollar amount.
c. acquisitions up to the simplified acquisition threshold.
Requirements solicited using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are typically
evaluated on
a. price alone.
b. past performance alone.
c. contractor business size.
d. overall ranking of offers.
a. price alone.
Options are evaluated by
a. using $500 as an evaluation factor.
b. considering only the cost of the basic year and awarding to the lowest bid.
c. adding the total price for all options to the total price for the basic requirement.
d. adding 10 percent of the total price for the basic requirement to the basic requirement price.
c. adding the total price for all options to the total price for the basic requirement.
What may be used in lieu of obtaining individual quotations each time a purchase for the
same item is contemplated?
a. Previous purchase price.
b. Standing price quotation.
c. Independent government estimate.
d. Lowest price available based on market research.
b. Standing price quotation.
A purchase order must
a. provide for inspection terms.
b. specify f.o.b. origin for supplies.
c. exclude prompt payment discounts.
d. identify an offeror’s tax identification number.
a. provide for inspection terms.
When only one reply is received in response to a solicitation estimated at less than the
simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), what action must the contracting officer take before
making the award?
a. An award may not be made; cancel the solicitation.
b. No further action is required; award to the one responding contractor.
c. Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of contractor
responsibility.
d. Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of fair and
reasonable price.
d. Include a statement in the contract file giving the basis of the determination of fair and
reasonable price.
What clause must be included in an unpriced purchase order?
a. New Material.
b. Notice to Supplier.
c. Fast Payment Procedure.
d. Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items.
b. Notice to Supplier.
Which section of a blanket purchase agreement contains accounting and appropriation data?
a. Invoices.
b. Extent of obligation.
c. Description of agreement.
d. Accounting and appropriation data are not cited.
d. Accounting and appropriation data are not cited.
In order to cancel a blanket purchasing agreement a contractor must give how many days
written notice to the government?
a. 1 day.
b. 10 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 90 days.
c. 30 days.
Calls placed against a prepriced blanket purchase agreement
a. must contain clauses.
b. do not require funding.
c. may only be placed orally.
d. must be placed by an authorized caller.
d. must be placed by an authorized caller.
The cover page and each page containing source selection information must be marked
a. For Official Use Only—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104.
b. For Official Use Only—See FAR 12.101 and 13.104.
c. Source Selection Information—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104.
d. Source Selection Information—See FAR 12.101 and 13.104.
c. Source Selection Information—See FAR 2.101 and 3.104.
All personnel involved in source selections must
a. sign a non-disclosure agreement.
b. possess a current security clearance.
c. meet mandatory grade requirements prior to being assigned to the source selection team.
d. be interviewed by the contracting officer prior to being assigned to the source selection team.
a. sign a non-disclosure agreement.
What action must a contracting officer (CO) take when a late proposal is received?
a. Designate the offer as nonresponsive.
b. Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range.
c. Provide a notice of late receipt and indicate whether or not the offer will be considered.
d. Disregard the proposal and provide a notice to unsuccessful offerors letter after an award is
made.
c. Provide a notice of late receipt and indicate whether or not the offer will be considered.
Can a proposal be withdrawn at any time before award?
a. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.
b. No, the proposal is retained with the contract file.
c. No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing.
d. Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and
finding (D&F).
a. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.
One indicator of an offeror’s ability to perform the contract is
a. by evaluating past performance.
b. the relative size of the company.
c. by conducting interviews with offerors.
d. by reviewing the offeror’s financial records.
a. by evaluating past performance.
Relevancy may be used in a past performance evaluation to
a. validate small business size status.
b. measure similarities in contract efforts.
c. determine an offeror’s current workload.
d. measure time that has elapsed since the referenced past performance occurred.
b. measure similarities in contract efforts.
When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting
officer
a. excludes the bottom 10% of the offerors.
b. only includes the top 10% of the offerors.
c. includes all of the most highly rated proposals.
d. includes all offerors who are technically acceptable.
c. includes all of the most highly rated proposals.
What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not
be included in the competitive range?
a. Begin negotiations with the offeror.
b. Request the offeror clarify its proposal.
c. Allow the offeror one more chance to revise its proposal.
d. Eliminate it from award consideration and notify the offeror.
d. Eliminate it from award consideration and notify the offeror.
When may an offeror be permitted to revise its proposal?
a. After conducting fact finding.
b. At the conclusion of discussions.
c. After exclusion from the competitive range.
d. In order to make an unacceptable proposal acceptable.
b. At the conclusion of discussions.
Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it
a. is less time-consuming.
b. evaluates separate cost elements.
c. normally determines price reasonableness.
d. requires little or no comparison of proposed prices.
a. is less time-consuming.
When analyzing price which of the following is not a condition for using previously
proposed prices?
a. There has not been a significant time lapse.
b. The reasonableness of the price is not uncertain.
c. The terms and conditions are not significantly different.
d. The contractor has not been debarred, suspended, or rendered ineligible.
d. The contractor has not been debarred, suspended, or rendered ineligible.
Which price analysis technique makes comparisons based on factors such as price per
square foot?
a. Rough estimation.
b. Cost estimating affiliation.
c. Cost estimating relationships.
d. Parallel estimating relationships.
c. Cost estimating relationships.
When using an independent government estimate (IGE) to conduct price analysis, the IGE
must
a. be an exact match to the offeror’s proposal.
b. include a basis for the estimate using validated data.
c. be revised to account for differences the government did not account for.
d. only be adjusted when differing from an offeror’s price by 50% or more.
b. include a basis for the estimate using validated data.
Cost analysis provides the basis for
a. awarding simplified acquisitions.
b. using cost estimating relationships.
c. determining contractor responsibility.
d. negotiating contract pricing arrangements.
d. negotiating contract pricing arrangements.
What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?
a. Cost and pricing data are certified.
b. Costs are not allocable to the contract.
c. Standards established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.
d. Rough yardsticks (such as dollars per pound) have been applied.
c. Standards established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.
Which is a direct cost?
a. The salary of a management official.
b. The cost of tools to cut and assemble wood.
c. The cost of insurance for vehicles used on the job.
d. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.
d. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.
An example of overhead costs is
a. legal fees.
b. officer supplies.
c. payroll insurance.
d. executive salaries.
c. payroll insurance.
What type of indirect cost is over and above allowable costs?
a. Profit.
b. Overhead.
c. Material costs.
d. General and administrative (G&A) expenses.
a. Profit.
An offeror is required to submit and certify cost or pricing data for a
a. $700,000 commercial purchase.
b. $750,000 non-commercial item acquisition.
c. $1M competitive construction contract.
d. $5M acquisition of a service that includes prices established by law.
b. $750,000 non-commercial item acquisition.
Certified cost or pricing data is required
a. only from prime contractors.
b. immediately upon contract award.
c. for all contract modifications regardless of dollar amount.
d. for termination settlements exceeding the Truth In Negotiations Act (TINA) threshold.
d. for termination settlements exceeding the Truth In Negotiations Act (TINA) threshold.
When requesting price information other than cost or pricing data
a. ensure offerors certify the data.
b. use the data to negotiate lower prices.
c. use the data for cost realism analysis.
d. make comparisons with each offer in the competitive range.
c. use the data for cost realism analysis.
Which of the following regarding other than cost or pricing data is true?
a. It is mandatory for sole source acquisitions.
b. It is never used in acquisitions for commercial items.
c. The offeror is always allowed to use its own format.
d. It may only be used to the extent necessary to determine price reasonableness.
d. It may only be used to the extent necessary to determine price reasonableness.
Which of the following exchanges allow for negotiating with offerors and allows for
revising proposals?
a. Discussions.
b. Fact finding.
c. Clarifications.
d. Communications.
a. Discussions.
A contracting officer must use discussions to
a. obtain the lowest possible price.
b. discuss every area where proposals can be improved.
c. allow offerors to respond to adverse past performance information.
d. identify proposal strengths for each offeror within the competitive range.
c. allow offerors to respond to adverse past performance information.
What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price when information at
the buying office is inadequate?
a. Audit report.
b. Field pricing support.
c. Fact-finding meeting.
d. Prenegotiation objective.
b. Field pricing support.
When developing prenegotiation positions in noncompetitive acquisitions
a. remain firm with the government’s price objective.
b. begin negotiations with the government’s objective.
c. establish minimum, objective, and maximum price positions.
d. base the government’s position on the amount of funding available.
c. establish minimum, objective, and maximum price positions.
How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?
a. Facilitates your side “buying” a position.
b. Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.
c. Gives other side the perception of being treated fairly.
d. Arranging the conference room gives you a psychological advantage.
b. Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.
Many negotiators are unable to make material concessions because
a. they use concession wisely and skillfully.
b. they exercise patience and good faith discussions.
c. their opening position is too close to their expectation level.
d. they walk away from bad deals or return to negotiations if a better deal could not be obtained.
c. their opening position is too close to their expectation level.
How should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position during negotiations?
a. Do not volunteer weaknesses.
b. Immediately reveal them as an act of good faith.
c. Divulge your weaknesses if the contractor does the same.
d. Explain your weaknesses only after agreeing to a final price.
a. Do not volunteer weaknesses.
Deadlocks in negotiations
a. are not always avoidable.
b. only occur when parties are unfair.
c. only occur when parties are unreasonable.
d. always signify the end of negotiation attempts.
a. are not always avoidable.
What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?
a. No one approach is better than another.
b. Start negotiating on secondary issues first.
c. Start negotiating issues of greatest importance.
d. Government negotiates the contractor’s demands first.
a. No one approach is better than another.
A certificate of current cost or pricing data must be submitted
a. with an offeror’s initial proposal.
b. immediately upon contract award.
c. with other than cost or pricing data.
d. using the exact wording prescribed by the FAR.
d. using the exact wording prescribed by the FAR.
When using lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA), the Source Selection Decision
Document (SSDD) must contain all of the following elements except
a. a comparative analysis of factors.
b. reasoning used to reach the decision.
c. how the competitive range was established.
d. rationale for determining technically unacceptable offerors.
a. a comparative analysis of factors.
What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?
a. SF 26.
b. SF 33.
c. SF 1442.
d. SF 1447.
c. SF 1442.
The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within
how many days?
a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.
a. 3.
Post-award debriefings should be conducted
a. by the head of the contracting activity.
b. within 5 days after the request is received.
c. within 10 days after the request is received.
d. only with those offerors in the competitive range.
b. within 5 days after the request is received.
Which of the following regarding post award debriefings is true?
a. Must be conducted orally.
b. Must avoid providing overall ranking of offerors.
c. May be provided to any offeror not awarded a contract.
d. Must be requested by unsuccessful offerors within 5 days after notification of award.
c. May be provided to any offeror not awarded a contract.
Who can postpone a bid opening (even after the time scheduled) when there is reason to
believe that causes beyond the bidders’ control and without their fault or negligence caused a
delay?
a. Agency head.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Bid opening officer.
d. Competition advocate.
b. Contracting officer.
A bidder may modify or withdraw its bid
a. at any time before the bid opening day.
b. at any time until the award of a contract.
c. after award if authorized by the agency head.
d. not later than the exact time set for the opening of bids.
d. not later than the exact time set for the opening of bids.
To be considered for award, a bid
a. must include the bidder’s most favorable terms.
b. must comply with the instructions of the invitation.
c. may take exception to the terms and conditions of the invitation.
d. may make slight variations from the terms and conditions of the invitation
b. must comply with the instructions of the invitation.
Which is not an example of an apparent clerical mistake?
a. Incorrect unit designation.
b. Misplacement of a decimal place.
c. Reversal of the price FOB destination and FOB origin.
d. Representation error with respect to Affirmative Action Programs.
d. Representation error with respect to Affirmative Action Programs.
In order to get an advanced decision before award determination, queries concerning
doubtful cases of mistakes in bids are submitted to the
a. Comptroller General.
b. Judge Advocate General.
c. Government Accountability Office.
d. Agency Board of Contract Appeals.
a. Comptroller General.
If two or more bidders still remain equally eligible after ranking in order of priority, the
award is made by
a. allowing equal low bidders to rebid.
b. drawing lots with only the equal bidders participating.
c. selecting the contactor least used by the Government from the pool of equal low bidders.
d. selecting the contractor with the best past performance record from the pool of equal low
bidders.
b. drawing lots with only the equal bidders participating.
The contracting officer examines the situation to determine why there was a small number
of responses to the invitation for bids when
a. only one bid is received.
b. three or fewer bids are received.
c. bids are received from less than 10 percent of those responding to the IFB.
d. bids are received from less than 50 percent of those responding to the IFB.
b. three or fewer bids are received.
Contract awards resulting from sealed bidding are generally made using
a. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1447.
b. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1449.
c. SF 26, SF 1447, or SF 1449.
d. SF 33, SF 1447, or SF 1449.
a. SF 26, SF 33, or SF 1447.
A government action may be protested by
a. an interested party.
b. the next low bidder.
c. all responsible bidders.
d. the next low small business bidder.
a. an interested party.