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50 Cards in this Set

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1. If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid, it must A. comply with federal restrictions on its use. B. reimburse the federal government after a specified period. C. match the funds with twice that amount in state funds. D. reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income. E. None of these answers is correct.
a
2. During the Great Depression of the 1930s, the national government A. provided vast sums to business firms to keep them out of bankruptcy. B. provided health care to Americans on a temporary basis as a means of alleviating economic hardships. C. asserted the power to regulate the nation's economy. D. provided vast sums to the states so they could meet their citizens' welfare needs. E. utilized laissez-faire capitalism in its policies.
c
3. National authority has greatly expanded in the twentieth century in large part because A. the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent. B. constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority. C. the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government. D. the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century. E. Americans like the idea of "big government
a
4. Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787? A. unitary to confederal B. confederal to unitary C. federal to unitary D. confederal to federal E. federal to confederal
d
5. McCulloch v. Maryland A. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism. B. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government. C. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law. D. established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues. E. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution
c
6. In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of
A. the national government.
B. state and local governments.
C. the National Education Association (NEA).
D. the American Federation of Teachers (AFT).
E. the U.S. Department of Education.
b
7. Devolution is the
A. passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.
B. expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.
C. contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.
D. expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.
E. None of these answers is correct
a
8. The federal government's power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and declare war are all examples
of ________ powers.
A. reserved
B. enumerated
C. implied
D. concurrent
E. None of these answers is correct.
b
9. Fiscal federalism refers to the
A. coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states.
B. expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.
C. national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s.
D. fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax.
E. ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making
b
10. A public policy program on which national, state, and local policymakers collaborate is an example of
A. dual federalism.
B. cooperative federalism.
C. unitary federalism.
D. confederal federalism.
E. cosponsor federalism
b
11. Sovereignty refers to A. a government headed by a king. B. a division of authority between the national government and the states. C. supreme and final governing authority. D. sub-national (state) governments. E. None of these answers is correct
c
12. According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong of a national government meant A. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states. B. that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years. C. that a monarchy was preferable to a republic. D. that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility. E. that slavery would be abolished immediately.
a
13. The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about A. individual freedoms. B. the meaning of the commerce clause. C. popular representation in Congress. D. the powers of state governments. E. the Electoral College.
d
14. The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to A. limit the powers of the state governments. B. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage. C. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage. D. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy. E. limit the power of the presidency.
d
15. Federal grants-in-aid used only for a designated activity are called A. categorical grants. B. block grants. C. revenue-sharing grants. D. targeted grants. E. streamlined grants
a
16. From 1789 to 1865, the most significant issue of federalism was A. the application of the Bill of Rights to action by the state governments. B. whether the states would accept the lawful authority of the national government. C. whether business trusts would be regulated primarily by the states or by the national government. D. whether the states would respect the sovereignty of neighboring states. E. laissez-faire capitalism.
b
17. The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts? A. enumerated powers B. reserved powers C. implied powers D. concurrent powers E. All these answers are correct.
c
18. States in which region receive more of their revenue from the federal government than do most other states? A. the West B. the Northeast C. the Midwest D. the South E. the noncontiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii
d
19. The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because A. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved. B. a federal government alone would never be able to command the identity or loyalty of its citizenry. C. Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government. D. the British political system was based on the federal principle. E. the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.
a
20. The Constitution allows states to A. raise an army in peacetime. B. print money. C. make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress. D. govern intrastate commerce. E. govern interstate commerce.
d
21. Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers? A. necessary and proper clause B. supremacy clause C. Tenth Amendment D. the commerce clause E. the power to tax
a
22. Which of the following was an argument in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution? A. Federalism will protect liberty. B. Federalism will force officials to be more responsive to the people. C. Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation. D. Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction. E. All these answers are correct.
e
23. Dual federalism held that A. the states were equal to the national government in all respects. B. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable. C. national and state authority were indivisible. D. the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority. E. None of these answers is correct.
b
24. Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power? A. public education B. regulation of commerce C. declaration of war D. taxation E. establish a national currency
a
25. A blending of state and national authority is associated with ________ federalism, while a separation of national and state authority is associated with ________ federalism. A. dual; fiscal B. dual; cooperative C. cooperative; dual D. picket-fence; cooperative E. cooperative; pyramid
c
1. According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly? A. Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium. B. Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing. C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable. D. Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups. E. Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment.
c
2. Spoken words that are known to be false and harmful to a person's reputation are an example of A. libel. B. slander. C. blasphemy. D. obscenity. E. symbolic speech.
b
3. If a person yells "fire" in a crowded theater when there is no fire, and people are hurt in the ensuing panic, that individual abused his/her freedom of speech according to the doctrine of A. malice. B. clear and present danger. C. unlawful assembly. D. privacy. E. prior restraint.
b
4. Which of the following is true about the Sedition Act of 1798? A. The Act prohibited malicious newspaper stories about the president. B. The Supreme Court ruled the Act unconstitutional. C. The Senate voted it down, while the House passed it. D. Thomas Jefferson strongly supported it. E. The state governments refused to enforce it.
a
5. The USA Patriot Act A. grants the government new powers of surveillance. B. relaxed restrictions on the sharing of intelligence surveillance information with criminal investigators. C. gives intelligence agencies the authority to share crime-related information with law enforcement agencies. D. was enacted in response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. E. All these answers are correct.
e
6. Which of the following is correct with regard to obscenity and the law?
A. Obscenity is not protected by the First Amendment.
B. Obscenity is never unlawful.
C. Child pornography is protected by the First Amendment.
D. Obscenity has been easy for courts to define with precision.
E. Obscenity is protected under the Ninth Amendment.
a
7. Libel applies to defamation of an individual's reputation through the
A. written word.
B. spoken word.
C. written and spoken word.
D. written, spoken, and symbolic word.
E. None of these answers is correct
a
8. The individual right that is widely regarded as the most basic of individual rights is
A. the right to an attorney.
B. freedom of expression.
C. the right to a jury trial.
D. the right to an adequate education.
E. protection against illegal searches and seizures.
b
9. The inevitable discovery exception
A. holds that the exclusionary rule can be waived in cases where failure to convict can lead to further public harm.
B. holds that otherwise excludable evidence can be admitted in trial if police believed they were following the
proper procedures.
C. allows the use of evidence that would have been discovered regardless by other means or through other forms
of evidence.
D. has effectively invalidated the exclusionary rule.
E. holds that a convicted person may not appeal the conviction when his or her own actions would have ultimately
led to further unlawful acts.
c
10. The right to counsel is guaranteed by the ________ Amendment.
A. First
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Ninth
E. Tenth
c
11. Justice Holmes's "clear and present danger" test holds that government can A. restrict speech that threatens national security. B. restrict any speech of an inflammatory nature. C. imprison political dissidents during time of war without following normal procedures. D. engage in prior restraint of the press whenever national security is at issue. E. restrict speech that is disrespectful to specific classes of citizens.
a
12. Government can lawfully prevent a political rally from taking place A. under no circumstances; people have an unconditional right to express their views. B. when the rally would require unduly expensive police protection. C. when the views of those holding the rally are unpopular. D. when it can demonstrate that harmful acts will necessarily result from the rally. E. None of these answers is correct.
d
13. The term civil liberties refers to specific individual rights that A. apply in civil cases but not in criminal cases. B. apply in civil cases but not in military ones. C. are constitutionally protected from infringement by government. D. are constitutionally protected from infringement by individuals. E. are not covered by the First Amendment
c
14. When can police legally begin their interrogation of a suspect? A. immediately upon arrest B. after the suspect has been warned that his or her words can be used as evidence C. only after the suspect has met with an attorney D. after the suspect has been arrested and is in the custody of the police E. after the suspect has been formally charged with a specific crime
b
15. In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court ruled that A. the Espionage Act was unconstitutional. B. speech could be restricted when the nation's security is at stake. C. speech unrelated to national security can never be restricted. D. speech by unpopular groups can be restricted more than speech by popular groups. E. all forms of political dissent are constitutional.
b
16. The establishment clause prohibits government from A. establishing exceptions to the Bill of Rights. B. establishing exceptions to the Fourteenth Amendment. C. favoring one religion over another or supporting religion over no religion. D. interfering with freedom of assembly. E. interfering with the right to bear arms.
c
17. The exclusionary rule states that A. federal law cannot be applied in state courts. B. the laws of one state court cannot be applied in the courts of another state. C. after seven years, the statute of limitations applies, except in murder cases. D. evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in court. E. state law cannot be applied in federal courts.
d
18. The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in A. the First Amendment. B. the Fourth Amendment. C. the Sixth Amendment. D. the Tenth Amendment. E. the Fourteenth Amendment.
a
19. Which constitutional amendment protects the individual against self-incrimination? A. First B. Second C. Fourth D. Fifth E. Ninth
d
20. Like all other rights, the right of free expression is A. spelled out in precise terms in the Bill of Rights. B. not absolute. C. fully respected by public officials. D. protected from action by federal officials but not state officials. E. None of these answers is correct
b
21. The Supreme Court's position on prior restraint of the press is that A. national security needs are of highest priority. B. only classified government documents are subject to prior restraint. C. prior restraint can never be exercised by government. D. prior restraint should apply only in rare circumstances, and it is better to hold the press responsible for what it has printed than to restrict what it may print. E. prior restraint should be used fairly frequently in a democracy
d
22. The individual freedoms in the Bill of Rights were extended by the Fourteenth Amendment to include protection from deprivation of due process rights by A. actions of the president. B. the actions of individuals. C. actions of the federal government. D. actions of state and local governments. E. actions of the U.S. military.
d
23. The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from A. any search conducted without a warrant. B. unreasonable searches. C. unreasonable searches conducted only by federal officers. D. all searches conducted by state officers. E. searches conducted only by local officers.
b
24. According to the Supreme Court, prior restraint on the press is only acceptable if A. lower federal courts approve the action. B. the government can clearly justify the restriction. C. the press itself willingly accepts that restraint. D. the press is careless in its claims. E. the press is malicious in its intent.
b
25. How did the Supreme Court's position on the rights of the accused in state courts change in the 1960s? A. The Supreme Court began to allow states greater freedom to interpret the rights of the accused. B. The Supreme Court began to dramatically reduce federal power to force the states to make special accommodations for the rights of accused minorities. C. The Supreme Court began to protect the rights of the accused from action by the states. D. The Supreme Court position did not change noticeably. E. The Supreme Court ceased to enforce the practice of selective incorporation.
c