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349 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The level of investigation that involves the collection of facts about observed events that can be quantified, classified, and examined for possible relations with other known facts, and often suggests hypotheses or questions for additional research is:
a) Prediction
b) Experimentation
c) Description
d) Control
a) Description
The level of investigation that demonstrates correlation between events and is based on repeated observations is:
a) Prediction
b) Experimentation
c) Description
d) Control
a) Prediction
The level of investigation in which functional relations can be derived is:
a) Prediction
b) Experimentation
c) Description
d) Control
d) Control
The overall goal of _______ is to achieve a thorough understanding of the phenomenon under study.
a) Behavior Analysis
b) Science
c) Experimentation
d) Functional relationships
b) Science
A functional relation means that:
a) Specific change in the independent variable can reliably be produced by specific manipulations in the dependent variable, and the change in the independent variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
b) Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the independent variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
c) Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the dependent variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
d) Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific manipulations in the confounding variable, and the change in the dependent variable was unlikely to be the result of the independent variable.
c) Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the dependent variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
This is the assumption upon which science is predicated, the idea that the universe is a lawful and orderly place in which all phenomena occur as the result of other events.
a) Mentalism
b) Determinism
c) Empiricism
d) Philosophic Doubt
b) Determinism
This is the idea that simple, logical explanations must be ruled out, experimentally or conceptually, before more complex or abstract explanations are considered.
a) Philosophic Doubt
b) Experimentation
c) Replication
d) Parsimony
d) Parsimony
This is the branch of behavior analysis that focuses on basic research:
a) Applied behavior analysis
b) Behaviorism
c) Experimental analysis of behavior
d) Radical behaviorism
c) Experimental analysis of behavior
The S-R-S model of psychology is also known as:
a) Three-term contingency
b) Watsonian psychology
c) Respondent behavior model
d) Reflexive behavior model
a) Three-term contingency
This person is considered to be the founder of experimental analysis of behavior:
a) John B. Watson
b) B.F. Skinner
c) Ivan Pavlov
d) Don Baer
b) B.F. Skinner
This is the approach to understanding behavior that assumes that a mental or "inner" dimension exists that differs from a behavioral dimension and that phenomena in this dimension either directly cause or at least mediate some forms of behavior.
a) Radical behaviorism
b) Methodological behaviorism
c) Structuralism
d) Mentalism
d) Mentalism
These events marked the formal beginning of contemporary applied behavior analysis.
a) "Some Current Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and Risley, was published and "The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by Ayllon and Michael, was published.
b) "The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by Ayllon and Michael, was published and Fuller conducted a study in which human application of operant behavior occurred
c) The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "Some Current Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and Risley, was published.
d) The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by Ayllon and Michael, was published.
c) The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "Some Current Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and Risley, was published.
This is the defining characteristic of behavior analysis that focuses on investigating socially significant behaviors with immediate importance to the participant(s).
a) Effective
b) Applied
c) Behavioral
d) Analytical
b) Applied
This is the defining characteristic of applied behavior analysis that demonstrates experimental control over the occurrence and non-occurrence of the behavior.
a) Effective
b) Analytic
c) Applied
d) Experimentation
b) Analytic
The controlling variables of primary importance in applied behavior analysis are located in:
a) The environment
b) Consequences
c) The mental states
d) Reinforcement
a) The environment
Two functionally distinct types of behavior important to behavior analysis include:
a) Learned and operant behavior
b) Reflexive and respondent behavior
c) Respondent and operant behavior
d) Operant and conditioned behavior
c) Respondent and operant behavior
Which of the following is considered a property of behavior amenable to measurement?
a) Temporal Weight
b) Temporal Locus
c) Temporal Displacement
d) Temporal Size
b) Temporal Locus
A _____ denotes a set or collection of knowledge and skills a person has learned that are relevant to particular settings or tasks.
a) Repertoire
b) Behavior
c) Skill
d) Response
a) Repertoire
Behavior is affected by stimulus changes that occur prior to and immediately after the behavior. The term _____ refers to environmental conditions or stimulus changes that exist or occur prior to the behavior of interest.
a) Consequence
b) Stimulus
c) Event
d) Antecedent
d) Antecedent
A behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli and is "brought about" by a stimulus that precedes it is:
a) Operant
b) Learned
c) Respondent
d) New
c) Respondent
A response is followed by a stimulus change, the effect of which is an increase in the future frequency of behavior. Which type of stimulus-change operation most likely occurred?
a) Reinforcement
b) Punishment
c) Extinction
d) Positive Punishment
a) Reinforcement
A response is followed by a stimulus change, the effect of which is a decrease in the future frequency of behavior. Which type of stimulus-change operation most likely occurred?
a) Reinforcement
b) Punishment
c) Negative Reinforcement
d) Positive Reinforcement
b) Punishment
Water is an example of a ______ reinforcer, while money is an example of a _______ reinforcer.
a) Conditioned, unconditioned
b) Secondary, primary
c) Unconditioned, conditioned
d) Powerful, ineffective
c) Unconditioned, conditioned
Answering the door when you hear the door bell and not when it is silent is an example of behavior being under:
a) Simultaneous prompting
b)Equivalence
c) Stimulus control
d) Premack principle
c) Stimulus control
A behavior that occurs more frequently under some antecedent conditions than it does in others is called a(n):
a) Stimulus control
b) Operant behavior
c) Discriminative stimulus
d) Discriminated operant
d) Discriminated operant
Food deprivation may alter the momentary effectiveness of food as a reinforcer. Food deprivation is an example of a(n):
a) Satiation trial
b) Motivating operation
c) Operant behavior
d) Experimental control
b) Motivating operation
The three-term contingency is made of these three terms:
a) Attitude, behavior, reinforcement
b) Antecedent, reinforcement, punishment
c) Antecedent, behavior, consequence
d) Antecedent, stimulus, control
c) Antecedent, behavior, consequence
The term "contingent" as used in behavior analysis refers to the dependent relationship of a particular consequence on the occurrence of behavior and is also used in reference to the _________ contiguity of behavior and its consequences.
a) Temporal
b) Independent
c) Dependent
d) False
a) Temporal
_______ behavior is elicited by antecedent stimuli.
a) Operant
b) Temporal
c) Respondent
d) All
c) Respondent
Conditioned _______ are the product of respondent conditioning.
a) Antecedents
b) Stimuli
c) Punishers
d) Reflexes
d) Reflexes
Operant behavior is selected by its:
a) Consequences
b) Antecedents
c) Conditioners
d) Respondent
a) Consequences
Operant conditioning encompasses:
a) Time and stimuli
b) Antecedents and phylogeny
c) Conditioned and unconditioned
d) Reinforcement and punishment
d) Reinforcement and punishment
Practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest
Empiricism
A carefully conducted comparison of some measure of the phenomena of interest (dependent variable) under two or more different conditions in which only one factor at a time (independent variable) differs from one condition to another
Experiment
Repeating of experiments (as well as repeating independent variable conditions within experiments)
Replication
Attitude of science that requires the scientist to continually question the truthfulness of what is regarded as fact
Philosophic doubht
Philosophy of the science of behavior
Behaviorism
Fictitious variable that often is simply another name for the observed behavior that contributes nothing to an understanding of the variable responsible for developing or maintaining behavior
Explanatory fiction
Presumed but unobserved entities that could not be manipulated in an experiment
Hypothetical constructs
A philosophical position that views behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed as outside the realm of science
Methodological behaviorism
Includes all and seeks to understand all human behavior (including behavior that cannot be publicly observed)
Radical behaviorism
The characteristic of ABA that commits to changing behaviors that improve and enhance peoples' lives
Applied
The behavioral characteristic of ABA implies that the target behavior must be:
a) the behavior in need of improvement
b) measurable
c) actually the behavior that has changed with intervention
d) all of the above
D) All of the above
The characteristic of ABA that says that all procedures are identified and defined clearly
Technological
The characteristic of ABA that says that behavioral interventions must be based on the principles of applied behavior analysis
Conceptually systematic
The characteristic of ABA that says that behavior intervention must improve behavior to a practical degree
Effective
The characteristic of ABA that says that behavior change must last over time and be seen in other environments
Generality
Anything a person says or does
Behavior
An action of an organism's effector
Response
A group of responses with the same function
Response class
An energy change that affects an organism through its receptor cells
Stimulus
Any group of stimuli sharing a predetermined set of common elements in one or more of these dimensions:
formally, temporally, and functionally
Stimulus class
Removal of a stimulus increases behavior
Negative reinforcement
A stimulus change that can increase the future frequency of behavior without any prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement
Unconditioned reinforcer
Stimulus events or conditions that are present or that occur just before or simultaneously with the occurrence of other reinforcers may acquire the ability to reinforce behavior when they later occur on their own as consequences
Conditioned reinforcers
Application of a stimulus decreases behavior
Positive punishment
Removal of a stimulus decreases behavior
Negative punishment
A stimulus change that can decrease the future frequency of behavior without any prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement
Unconditioned punisher
Stimulus events or conditions that are present or that occur just before or simultaneously with the occurrence of other punishers may acquire the ability to punish behavior when they later occur on their own as consequences
Conditioned punishers
Wen a discriminated operant occurs at a higher frequency in the presence of a given stimulus than it does in the absence of that stimulus, it is said to be under __________________
Stimulus control
When a reinforcer or punisher is said to be __________ on a particular behavior, the behavior must be emitted for the consequence to occur.
Contingent
All of the following are assessment methods used in applied behavior analysis except:
a) Direct observation
b) Interview
c) Medical evaluations
d) Checklists
c) Medical evaluations
Behavior assessment seeks to determine the ______ of a behavior.
a) Function
b) Replacement
c) Importance
d) Structure
a) Function
All of the following are competencies of a behavior analyst except:
a) Knowledge of socially important behavior
b) Technical skills
c) Ability to conduct statistical analyses of data
d) Ability to match assessment data with intervention strategies
c) Ability to conduct statistical analyses of data
Potential target behaviors should not be selected if the primary reason for selection is the:
a) Benefit of others
b) Safety of the person
c) Safety of family members
d) Potential to increase independence
a) Benefit of others
Interview questions should avoid "why" questions because these tend to encourage _______ explanations of behavior.
a) Defensive
b) Mentalistic
c) Lengthy
d) Direct
b) Mentalistic
A descriptive and temporally sequenced account of behavior in the natural environment is called a(n):
a) Anecdotal observation
b) Behavioral assessment
c) Ecological assessment
d) Real time observation
a) Anecdotal observation
The ________ of behavior rule states that a target behavior should only be selected when it can be determined that the behavior will produce natural reinforcement.
a) Functionality
b) Validity
c) Relevance
d) Importance
c) Relevance
The principle of ________ determines the degree to which a person's behavior repertoire maximizes short and long term reinforcers for that individual and for others, and minimizes short and long term punishers.
a) Normalization
b) Habilitation
c) Functionality
d) Justification
b) Habilitation
Behavior that exposes an individual to new contingencies, reinforcers, and stimulus controls is called:
a) Pivotal behavior
b) Access behavior
c) Behavior cusp
d) Contingent behavior
c) Behavior cusp
When a problem behavior has been targeted for reduction or elimination, the behavior analyst must always include a(n) ________ in the intervention plan.
a) Replacement behavior
b) Appropriate response
c) Pivotal behavior
d) Performance criterion
a) Replacement behavior
Juan is a six-year-old boy with a developmental disability who attends an integrated kindergarten class. Assessments have identified four target behaviors. Which behavior should be the first target for intervention?
a) Flicking his fingers in front of his eyes
b) Bolting from the playground
c) Toilet training
d) Humming loudly during group activities
b) Bolting from the playground
In determining the likelihood of success in changing a behavior, all of the following should be considered except:
a) Research on changing this behavior
b) Experience of the behavior analyst
c) Social validity of the behavior
d) Available resources
c) Social validity of the behavior
Explicit behavior definitions are important in research of applied behavior analysis for all of the following except:
a) Replication by other scientists
b) Accurate and reliable measurement of behavior
c) Comparison of data across studies
d) Agreement between assessment and intervention data
d) Agreement between assessment and intervention data
A(n) ________ definition designates responses in terms of their effect on the environment.
a) Observable
b) Function-based
c) Topography-based
d) Ecological
b) Function-based
Behaviors have ________ if they affect a person's life in a positive and meaningful manner.
a) Social validity
b) Functional application
c) Observable benefit
d) Normalized outcomes
a) Social validity
Outcome criteria should be established before intervention commences for all of the following reasons except:
a) To establish the target performance level
b) To know when to terminate intervention
c) To ensure accurate data collection
d) To ensure agreement on outcomes among stakeholders
c) To ensure accurate data collection
In order to be understood by everyone, measurement units must be:
a) Analysis
b) Subjective
c) Labeled
d) Unambiguous
d) Unambiguous
Practitioners need measurement in order to do all of the following except
a) Operationalize empiricism
b) Identify current behavior levels
c) Evaluate treatment
d) Make accurate decisions
a) Operationalize empiricism
The dimensional quantity of duration is described as:
a) Temporal locus
b) Repeatability
c) Temporal extent
d) Count
c) Temporal extent
_________ is obtained by combining observation time with a tally of the number of occurrences of behavior.
a) Response latency
b) Rate
c) Celeration
d) Whole interval
b) Rate
All of the following are procedures for measuring behavior except
a) Event recording
b) Timing
c) Time sampling
d) Observation
d) Observation
Devices such as wrist counters, masking tape, buttons, and calculators are all useful when using ________ recording procedures.
a) Event
b) Timing
c) Rate
d) Duration
a) Event
The procedure that measures behavior after it has occurred by measuring its effect on the environment is called:
a) Measurement artifact
b) Planned activity check
c) Permanent product
d) Time sampling
c) Permanent product
Which of the following is a reason not to use permanent product measurement?
a) Moment-to-moment decisions must be made
b) The behavior has a direct effect on the environment
c) The product can only be produced by the target behavior
d) Each behavior occurrence results in the same product
a) Moment-to-moment decisions must be made
One advantage of using computer-based observation and measurement systems is
a) Many practitioners are familiar with it
b) Data can be clustered and analyzed easily
c) It is less expensive
d) It is less intrusive than traditional methods
b) Data can be clustered and analyzed easily
Computer-assisted measurement of behavior allows the observer to do all of the following except:
a) Collect permanent products
b) Record multiple behaviors simultaneously
c) Aggregate data easily
d) Analyze data from different perspectives
a) Collect permanent products
Marco is learning to assemble computer components as part of his new job at a factory. Speed and accuracy are critical skills for him to learn in assembling his component. What is the most appropriate method for measuring his behavior?
a) Whole interval recording
b) Duration
c) Permanent product
d) Response latency
c) Permanent product
By using a scatter plot, you will be able to analyze relationships between ______.
a) appropriate and inappropriate behaviors
b) a behavior and time of day
c) duration of a behavior and frequency of a behavior
d) effective procedure and ineffective procedure
b) a behavior and time of day
What does informed consent require?
Capacity, informed, voluntary
Which recording do we tend to underestimate its overall percentage? a) partial interval recording
b) whole interval recording
c) event recording d) time sampling
b) whole interval recording
Physical shape of a behavior is called ___________.
topography
Which reinforcement schedule is the hardest to fade?
a) fixed interval
b) variable interval c) fixed ratio d) variable ratio
d) variable ratio
Which one of the following is NOT a type of stimulus equivalence? a) reciprocity
b)transitivity
c) symmetry d) reflexivity
a) reciprocity
Data collected before implementing an intervention is called ____________.
baseline
What is the teaching method that is designed to be at the individual's own pace with direct instruction and also known as the Keller Plan?
Personalized System of Instruction
Which of the following is based on temporal locus? a) rate
b) duration
c) latency
d) percent
c) latency
Precision teaching was founded by ___________.
Ogden Lindsley
Which of the following is the intermittent schedule of reinforcement?
a) fixed ratio
b) variable ratio c) fixed interval
d) continuous reinforcement
b) variable ratio
Parsimony is the ______ logical explanation of behavior analysis
simples
Which recording method does NOT require the observed to be present while the behavior occurs?
a) partial interval recording
b) whole interval recording
c) outcome recording
d) event recording
c) outcome recording
Anecdotal observation is also known as _________.
ABC recording
The simplest form of inerobserver aggreement is _____.
Total count IOA
X-axis is also know as ____
Abscissa
This method of teachign was designed by Ivar Lovaas and it is taught in 1:1 settings with small repeated steps.
discrete trial training
When checking an inter-observer aggreement, two observers must _______.
a) be observing the same behavior
b) standing next to each other
c) not know each other
d) have BCBA or BCaBA
a) be observing the same behavior
Which of the following shows the correct order in history (oldest to newest)?
a) JABA, the Behavior of Organisms, the vegetative idiot, the Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer
b) The Vegetative idiot, the Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer, JABA, the Behavior of Organisms,
c) the Behavior of Organisms, JABA, the Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer, the Vegetative idiot
d) the Behavior of Organisms, the Vegetative idiot, Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer, JABA
d) the Behavior of Organisms, the Vegetative idiot, Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer, JABA
Which of the following occurs because of the observer's misinterpretation of the operational definition?
a) measurement bias
b) observer drift
c) unscored interval inter-observer agreement
d) overcorrection
b) observer drift
When reinforcement effectivness decreases, the motivation operation is a(n)_______.
a) establishing operation
b) abolishing operation
c) reducing operation
d) relativity operation
b) abolishing operation
Which of the follwing is an example of a backup reinforcer?
a) token
b) ticket
c) money
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
Which of the following is a stimulus?
a) presentng a picture
b) giving an instruction
c) giving a prompt
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
When using a whole interval recording or a partial interval recording, we must know that the data could be overestimating or underestimating the actual result. This phenomena is known as ______.
artifact
What does 4-term contingency consist of?
EO, SD, response, and reinforcer
In which schedule of reinforcermentis a scallop effect observered?
fixed interval
Why does ratio strain occur?
because the ratio requirement is too high
What is the definition of matching law?
The resposne rate tends to equal the reinforcement rate.
When implementing self-monitoring, which of the following is NOT an important recommentation?
a) You should start with an easy to achieve and meaningful criterion.
b) You should deliver bootleg reinforcement.
c) You should have another person deliver the consequence.
d) You should keep the rules simple.
b) You should deliver bootleg reinforcement.
What are the four types of generalized treatment effects that are known as a generalization map?
time, settings, behaviors, subjects
Dual relationships occur between______.
a) agencies
b) colleagues
c) therapist and client
d) none of the above
c) therapist and client
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good definitions?
a) unambiguous
b) socially valid
c) objective
d) complete
socially valid
Why is the reversal design sometimes inappropriate to use?
a) Because people may not be able to unlearn things that they have learned.
b) Because people may lose time to learn appropriate behaviors during reversal phases.
c) Because it may not be ethically appropriate to go back to reverse phases.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
_____ is a physical shape or characteristic of a behavior.
topography
Breaches of confidentiality occur when ______.
abuse is present and there is neglect or carelessness.
Y-axis is also known as _____.
ordinate
Which of the following is based on temporal extent?
a) rate
b) duration
c) latency
d) percent
b) duration
Experimental design demonstrates the changes in behavior are attributed to changes in the indepdendent variable. This study shows how ____.
internal validity
Which of the following is controlled by EO?
a) echoic
b) intraverbal
c) mand
d) tact
c) mand
Which of the following is the simplest form of inter-observer agreement?
a) exact count IOA
b) total count IOA
c) scored-interval IOA
d) trial-by-trial IOA
b) total count IOA
A procedure that gradually reduces the degree of prompts is callled _______.
fading
Three-term contingency consists of
SD, operant response, and reinforcer/puisher
Which of the following is NOT accurate information about stimulus events? Stimulus events are described ______.

a) contingently
b) formally
c) functionally
d) temporally
contingently
Stimulus discrimination requires ___ behaviors (s) and ____ antecdent stimilus conditions. (give numbers).
1, 2
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of ABA?
a) effective
b) analytic
c) operant
d) conceptually systematic
c) operant
Which of the following is using the correct terms and order?
a) SD-response-punishment
b) response-SD-prompt-reinforcement
c) EO-SD-response-reinforcement
d) S Delta-SD-response-punishment
c) EO-SD-response-reinforcement
This recording method requires an observer to record the occurrenceof behavior at the end of the interval and it tends to both over and under estimate the actual occurrences of behavior.
momentary time sampling
Which of the following is NOT a main consideration for the use of punishment?
a) responsibility to the least restrictive interventions
b) client's right to effective treatments
c) reaction from people around the client
d) client's right to humane treatments
c) reaction from people around the client
Respondent behavior is behavior that is _____by ____.
elicited, antecedent stimuli
Which of the following is known to be the most stringent way to caculate IOA for the event recording method?
a) total count IOA
b) total duration IOA
c) scored-interval IOA
d) exact count-per-interval IOA
d) exact count-per-interval IOA
Which recording method tends to overestimate the occurrences of behavior?
partial interval recording
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of ABA?
a) applied
b) effective
c) experimental
d) analytic
c) experimental
Which of the following is known to be the most stringent way to calculate IOA for the event recording method?
a) total count IOA
b) total duration IOA
c) scored-interval IOA
d) exact count-per-interval IOA
d) exact count-per-interval IOA
Exposing various objects and seeing what an individual chooses is called ___________.
reinforcement sampling
Which of the following states that all events have causes?
a) philosophical assumptions
b) parsimony
c) empiricism
d) determinism
d) determinism
Applied behavior analysis was defined by _____.
Baer, Wolf, and Risely
Behavior is defined as ______.
the activity of living organisms
Differential reinforcement requires _____ situation(s) and ____ behaviors(s). (Give numbers)
1, 2
Sd, Sp, an S-delta are all _______.
discriminative stimuli
What people do and say is known as ______ behavior.
overt
How people fell and what people think is known as ____ behavior.
covert
Which of the following is true about a cumulative graph?
a) It always shows percentage.
b) The data shows steady progress.
c) The data never descents.
d) The data always shows high variability
c) The data never descents.
In event recording, you record ______.
frequency, duration, rate
Which of the following is a non-exclusion time out?
a) hallway time out
b) timeout ribbon
c) time out room
d) partition time out
b) timeout ribbon
Temporal extent indicates ______________.
how long a behavior occurs
This tool is used to increase the independence of a person's living skills by breaking one complex skill into small steps, teaching each step and recording prompt levels in each step.
task analysis
Whole interval recording has a tendency to underestimate and partial interval recording has a tendency to overestimate the occurrences of a target behavior. This phenomena is called a(n) _____.
artifact
Which of the following is NOT true about changing criterion design?
a) It always has more than 1 target behavior.
b) People sometimes use this to lower the rate of unwanted behaviors.
c) A new criterion is progressively determined to evaluate the effect of the treatment.
d) Consequences are not delivered when meeting previous set criteria.
a) It always has more than 1 target behavior.
Which of the following is NOT true about time out?
a) Timeout is a form of punishment
b) Time out withdraws opportunities for positive reinforcement.
c) Time out is effective when the behavior occurs for escape.
d) Time out itself does not teach alternative appropriate behaviors.
c) Time out is effective when the behavior occurs for escape.
Which of the following defines systematic manipulation?
a) It is used to determine the effect of various reinforcers.
b) It is used to confirm hypotheses about functional relations between the target behavior and environmental events.
c) It is used to collect previous interventions that have been used.
d) It is used to determine the appropriate schedule of reinforcement.
b) It is used to confirm hypotheses about functional relations between the target behavior and environmental events.
_______ invented the theory of operant conditioning and believed that all behaviors are influenced by consequences.
Skinner
Which of the following is also known as the Personalized System of Instruction?
a) Howard Plan
b) Baer Plan
c) Keller Plan
d) Peck Plan
c) Keller Plan
A functional relation exists when __________.
you are able to control the occurrence and non-occurrence of target behavior
_________ is a method that is skills-oriented in a small group and lecture-based using sequenced small units of cognitive skills.
Direct Instruction
In order to teach a child to use PECS, which skill is a prerequisite?
matching
Which of the following is measurable?
a) rate
b) baseline
c) dependent variable
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
Which of the following does NOT require full-time observation?
a) duration recording
b) partial interval recording
c) permanent product recording
d) whole interval recording
c) permanent product recording
A(n) _______ measure of the actual behavior of interest will always possess more validity than a(n) _______ measure.
a) Indirect, direct
b) Direct, indirect
c) Discontinuous, continuous
d) Reliable, accurate
b) Direct, indirect
________ measurement is consistent measurement.
a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Accurate
d) Discontinuous
a) Reliable
When data give an unwarranted or misleading picture of the behavior because of the way measurement was conducted, the data are called a(n):
a) Bias
b) Artifact
c) Drift
d) Variable
b) Artifact
In general, artifacts can be limited by scheduling ________ observations.
a) Indirect
b) Infrequent
c) Frequent
d) Mini
c) Frequent
Cumbersome and difficult to use measurement ________ can lead to inaccurate and unreliable measurements.
a) Agreement
b) Instruments
c) Observers
d) Rulers
b) Instruments
Which of the following is not a suggested training method for potential observers?
a) Select observers carefully
b) Train observers to an objective standard of competency
c) Use a systematic approach to training
d) Explicit feedback about data collection as it relates to the hypothesis
d) Explicit feedback about data collection as it relates to the hypothesis
Reliable data are not necessarily _______ data.
a) Complete
b) Direct
c) Accurate
d) Real
c) Accurate
Which of the following is not a requisite for obtaining valid IOA measures?
a) Use the same observation code and measurement system
b) Observe and measure the same participant(s) and events
c) Observe and record the behavior independent of any influence from one another
d) Score all IOA while sitting side-by-side with another observer
d) Score all IOA while sitting side-by-side with another
Which of the following is a limitation of total count IOA?
a) Provides no assurance that the two observers recorded the same instances of behavior
b) Useful for event recording
c) Is expressed as percentage of agreement
d) Is calculated by dividing the smaller of the counts by the larger count and multiplying by 100
a) Provides no assurance that the two observers recorded the same instances of behavior
Which of the following is the most stringent method for calculating IOA for behaviors that occur at relatively high rates and obtained by interval recording?
a) Total Count IOA
b) Unscored-interval IOA
c) Scored-interval IOA
d) Mean Count-per-Interval IOA
b) Unscored-interval IOA
Visual analysis is considered a(n) ________ method for determining the social significance of behavior change.
a) Subjective
b) Conservative
c) Obsolete
d) Over-utilized
b) Conservative
Graphic displays of behavioral data are considered simple formats for visually displaying ________ among and between a series of measurements and relevant variables.
a) Time series
b) Arrangements
c) Relationships
d) Peaks
c) Relationships
This type of graph is also known as a histogram and is useful in summarizing behavioral data allowing for a quick comparison of performance across participants and/or conditions.
a) Line graph
b) Scatterplot
c) Cumulative Record
d) Bar graph
d) Bar graph
This is the most commonly used graph in applied behavior analysis.
a) Line graph
b) Scatterplot
c) Cumulative Record
d) Bar graph
a) Line graph
You are interested in the total number of sight words accurately read since your data collection began last week. Which graphing convention allows you to most efficiently answer your inquiry?
a) Line graph
b) Scatterplot
c) Cumulative Record
d) Bar graph
d) Bar graph
A ________ is depicted on a line graph by an open spot in the axis with a squiggly line at each end.
a) Condition line
b) Data set
c) Scale break
d) Horizontal axis
c) Scale break
This part of a line graph is printed below the graph and gives a concise but complete description of the figure.
a) Figure caption
b) Data set
c) Scale break
d) Condition label
a) Figure caption
Logarithmic scales are an appropriate graphing format when _______ change is of particular interest.
a) Cumulative
b) Rate
c) Rapid
d) Proportional
d) Proportional
A ________ chart is a type of semilogarithmic chart useful for charting accelerating and decelerating performances over time.
a) Cumulative time
b) Standard celeration
c) Scatter plot
d) Bar graph
b) Standard celeration
In order to produce a visual representation of an overall rate on a cumulative graph, the first and last data points of a given series of observations should be:
a) Plotted bilaterally
b) Plotted using different symbols
c) Drawn simultaneously
d) Connected with a straight line
d) Connected with a straight line
The _______ of each data path on a cumulative record represents the different rates of acquisition.
a) Position
b) Slope
c) Scatter
d) Slant
b) Slope
A scatterplot shows the _________ distribution of individual measures in a data set with respect to the variables depicted by the both the x- and y-axes.
a) Exact
b) Scattered
c) Relative
d) Standard
c) Relative
Scatterplots are useful when applied behavior analysts are interested in finding out the ________ distribution of the target behavior. In other words, a scatterplot illustrates whether the behavior's occurrence is typically associated with certain time periods.
a) Temporal
b) Amount of
c) Standard
d) Simple
a) Temporal
The type of graph that has disconnected data points and is used primarily to depict temporal distributions and reveal correlations between variables depicted on the y-axis with variables depicted on the x-axis.
a) Cumulative record
b) Line graph
c) Bar graph
d) Scatterplot
d) Scatterplot
You are interested in beginning a self-management program to help you save money for a new car. Which type of graph would provide the most appropriate feedback and display your progress toward your goal?
a) Cumulative record
b) Line graph
c) Bar graph
d) Scatterplot
a) Cumulative record
You are interested in comparing the effects of two different interventions on a single target behavior. You have decided to present each of the interventions in an alternating fashion and measure the changes in the value of your dependent variable. You would like to plot the results of both interventions on one graph. Which would be the best format to display your results?
a) Cumulative record
b) Line graph
c) Bar graph
d) Scatterplot
b) Line graph
Which of the following is not an assumption underlying the analysis of behavior?
a) Determinism
b) Empiricism
c) Philosophic doubt
d) Pseudoscience
d) Pseudoscience
The assumption that the universe is a lawful and orderly place and that natural phenomena occur in relation to other events describes which assumption underlying the analysis of behavior?
a) Empiricism
b) Determinism
c) Parsimony
d) Philosophic doubt
b) Determinism
The three levels of scientific understanding include:
a) Empiricism, determinism, and philosophic doubt
b) Verification, prediction, and replication
c) Group designs, single-subject designs, and correlations
d) Description, prediction, control
d) Description, prediction, control
____ science yields a collection of facts about the observed events-facts that can be quantified and classified.
a) Replicated
b) Experimental
c) Predictive
d) Descriptive
d) Descriptive
The highest level of scientific understanding results from establishing:
a) Experimental control
b) Prediction
c) Replication
d) Analysis
a) Experimental control
An ________ of behavior has been achieved when a reliable functional relation between the behavior and the independent variable has been demonstrated convincingly.
a) Application
b) Investigation
c) Analysis
d) Experimental design
c) Analysis
________ refers to the degree to which a study's results are generalizable to other subjects, settings, and/or behaviors.
a) Internal validity
b) External validity
c) Experimental control
d) Prediction
b) External validity
An experiment has a high degree of _______ when the experiment shows convincingly that changes in behavior are a function of the independent variable and not the result of uncontrolled or unknown variables.
a) Internal validity
b) External validity
c) Replication
d) Prediction
a) Internal validity
________ are variables known or suspected to exert an uncontrolled influence on the dependent variable.
a) Independent variables
b) Investigated variables
c) Confounding variables
d) Specified variables
c) Confounding variables
Behavior analysts believe behavioral variability is ________ to the organism.
a) Internal
b) External
c) Inevitable
d) Confined
b) External
_________ is the "hallmark of applied behavior analysis."
a) Internal and external validity
b) Replication, prediction, and control
c) Single-measurement
d) Systematic repeated measurement of behavior
d) Systematic repeated measurement of behavior
_________ is the interaction between an organism and its environment
a) Measurement
b) Independent variable
c) Behavior
d) Science
c) Behavior
Which of the following is not considered to be an essential component of experiments in applied behavior analysis?
a) At least one subject
b) At least one setting
c) At least one large group for statistical comparisons
d) At least one independent variable
c) At least one large group for statistical comparisons
A well-planned experiment begins with
a) A research question
b) Selection of participants
c) Selection of a setting
d) Selection of an experimental design
a) A research question
As a general rule the independent variable should be introduced when ________ baseline responding has been achieved.
a) Variable
b) Replicable
c) Stable
d) Complete
c) Stable
When the data show no evidence of an upward or downward trend and all the measures fall within a small range of values, the data pattern is referred to as
a) Ascending
b) Descending
c) Level
d) Stable
d) Stable
The three elements of baseline logic include the following:
a) Prediction, verification, and replication
b) Ascending, descending, and stable
c) Internal validity, external validity, and reliability
d) Dependent variable, independent variable, baseline
a) Prediction, verification, and replication
All things being equal, an experiment that incorporates ________ reversal(s) presents a more convincing and compelling demonstration of experimental control than an experiment with _______ reversal(s).
a) Multiple, one
b) One, four
c) Several, multiple
d) Five, seven
a) Multiple, one
Which of the following is considered to be a reason for using a B-A-B design instead of an A-B-A-B design?
a) Irreversibility
b) Unlimited time in which to demonstrate practical and social significance
c) Sequence effects
d) When treatment is already in place
d) When treatment is already in place
This design is considered the most "straightforward" and generally most powerful within-subject design for demonstrating a functional relationship.
a) Alternating treatments design
b) Multiple baseline design
c) AB design
d) A-B-A-B reversal design
d) A-B-A-B reversal design
For most investigations it is suggested that you only change _______ variable(s) at a time.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
a) One
_________ control conditions might be used as a variation of the reversal design when it is not possible or when it is deemed inappropriate to completely eliminate an event or activity as a reinforcer.
a) Difference
b) Noncontingent reinforcement
c) Sequenced
d) Temporal
b) Noncontingent reinforcement
This experimental tactic entails repeated measures of behavior in a given setting that require at least three consecutive phases: baseline, introduction of the independent variable, and a return to baseline.
a) Alternating treatments design
b) Multiple baseline design
c) Repeated multiple measures design
d) ABA reversal design
d) ABA reversal design
________ means that a level of behavior observed in an earlier phase cannot be reproduced even though experimental conditions return to preintervention conditions.
a) Sequence effects
b) Irreversibility
c) Order effects
d) Reliability
b) Irreversibility
This design is predicated on the behavioral principle of stimulus discrimination and allows for the comparison of two or more different treatments.
a) Multiple baseline design
b) Alternating treatments design
c) A-B-A-B reversal design
d) Single-subject design
b) Alternating treatments design
An investigator who ________ turns the target behavior on and off by presenting and withdrawing a specific variable makes a clear and convincing demonstration of experimental control.
a) Conditionally
b) Haphazardly
c) Covertly
d) Reliably
d) Reliably
This term is used to describe the effects on a subject's behavior in a given condition that may be a result of the subject's experience with a prior condition.
a) Sequence
b) Irreversible
c) Temporal
d) Variable
a) Sequence
Simultaneous measurement of two or more behaviors of a single participant describes which type of experimental design?
a) Multiple baseline across behaviors
b) Multiple baseline across settings
c) Multiple baseline across subjects
d) Multiple baseline across probes
a) Multiple baseline across behaviors
In a multiple baseline design, the functional relationship between the independent variable and the change in the subject's behavior is determined by:
a) Systematic introduction and withdrawal across phases
b) Observation of unchanged behaviors in other tiers
c) Observation of behavior change in the treated tier
d) Replication of behavior change with each new criterion
b) Observation of unchanged behaviors in other tiers
Which experimental design is most appropriate for evaluating the effect of video modeling on the acquisition of the skills for preparing a meal by adults with developmental disabilities?
a) Multiple baseline across behaviors
b) Changing criterion
c) Multiple probe
d) Delayed multiple baseline
c) Multiple probe
All of the following are appropriate situations to use a delayed multiple baseline except:
a) A planned reversal design is no longer possible
b) The researcher has limited resources to conduct data collection
c) A reversal design is too challenging to implement
d) Additional subjects become available after the start of the study
c) A reversal design is too challenging to implement
All of the following are advantages of the multiple baseline design except:
a) Easy to conceptualize
b) Lack of treatment withdrawal
c) Mimics common practice of practitioners
d) Takes less time to implement
d) Takes less time to implement
All of the following are limitations of the multiple baseline design except:
a) It may not reveal the functional relationship, even if one exists
b) Verification of predicted behavior change must be inferred from other behaviors.
c) The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already
d) It is weaker than the reversal design
c) The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already
When an intervention that is known to be effective is withheld from a subject for the purposes of achieving a multiple baseline design, this presents a(n) ________ challenge for researchers.
a) Practical
b) Ethical
c) Experimental
d) Logical
b) Ethical
One method of addressing the practical concern of costly measurement when using a multiple baseline design across settings is to:
a) Include only one setting in the study
b) Reduce the number of baseline data points
c) Use intermittent probes during baseline
d) Use a changing criterion design instead of the multiple baseline
c) Use intermittent probes during baseline
When a subject's behavior changes each time a new criterion is introduced, this is an example of
a) Prediction
b) Function
c) Replication
d) Systematic manipulation
c) Replication
Which of the following is not a design factor to be considered when using a changing criterion design?
a) Length of phase
b) Magnitude of behavior change
c) Number of criterion changes
d) Verification of behavior change
d) Verification of behavior change
The most useful level to understand the effect of a treatment is the:
a) Group level
b) Individual level
c) Procedural level
d) Implementation level
b) Individual level
Applied behavior analysis research has identified effective interventions for socially significant behavior by focusing on the
a) Behavior of individuals with cognitive delays
b) Common behavior of groups of individuals
c) Behavior of individual subjects
d) Behavior of professionals
c) Behavior of individual subjects
Combining analytic tactics in an experimental design is a good idea when
a) It allows for a more convincing demonstration of experimental effect
b) The research question is too broad for a single design
c) The procedures are quite complex
d) None of these is a justification for combining tactics
a) It allows for a more convincing demonstration of experimental effect
The research tactic for examining two or more elements of a treatment package is called a(n)
a) Alternating treatment design
b) Multiple baseline across interventions
c) Multiple treatments
d) Component analysis
d) Component analysis
Experiments that demonstrate a clear functional relationship between the independent variable and the observed behavior are said to have a high degree of
a) Internal validity
b) External validity
c) Social validity
d) Reliability
a) Internal validity
An uncontrolled factor that is known or suspected to have exerted influence on the dependent variable is called a(n)
a) Extraneous factor
b) Confounding variable
c) Behavioral control
d) Maintaining event
b) Confounding variable
All of the following are methods for assessing the social validity of outcomes except:
a) Comparing participants' performance to the performance of a normative sample
b) Using standardized assessment instruments
c)Asking consumers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes
d) Asking the researchers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes
d) Asking the researchers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes
The ultimate purpose of social validity assessment is to
a) Guide behavior change program development and application
b) Improve researchers' chances of publication
c) Improve the relationship between researchers and clients
d) Increase the magnitude of behavior change
a) Guide behavior change program development and application
The degree to which a functional relationship can be demonstrated in circumstances that are different from the experimental conditions is called:
a) Internal validity
b) Treatment acceptability
c) Replication
d) External validity
d) External validity
Which of the following research designs have contributed the least in terms of effective technology for behavior change?
a) Group comparison designs
b) Multiple baseline across settings
c) Reversal designs
d) Component analyses
a) Group comparison designs
Which of the following is a factor not to consider when determining whether or not a functional relation has been demonstrated in an experiment?
a) The degree to which the researcher controlled potential confounds
b) An examination of the measurement system
c) Visual analysis and interpretation of the data
d) Systematic replication of effects
d) Systematic replication of effects
Which of the following is not a reason that applied behavior analysts favor visual analysis of data over statistical methods?
a) Statistical significance is not the target outcome for behavior analysts.
b) Visual analysis is well suited for demonstrating strong effects.
c) Highly variable data may not be statistically significant.
d) Predetermined criteria of statistical tests offer less flexibility in experimental design.
c) Highly variable data may not be statistically significant.
Negative reinforcement can be defined as: Stimulus _______________, contingent upon a response, which _______________ the future probability of that response.
a) Presented, increases
b) Presented, decreases
c) Removed, increases
d) Removed, decreases
c) Removed, increases
Which of the following is an example of a negative reinforcement contingency?
a) Jo is sitting near a window at Starbucks having a cup of coffee. The sun is streaming in the window, and it is too warm for Jo-she is beginning to perspire. Jo moves to another chair away from the window, where it is shady. The next time Jo goes to Starbucks, she sees the sun shining in the window again and sits in the chair in the shade instead.
b) Frank often goes to Starbucks for coffee as well. After receiving his coffee, he sits down in his seat. It is 9:00 am, and Starbucks is very busy. Most of the tables are full. As a result, a smart woman approaches Frank and asks if she can share his table. Frank agrees, and the woman sits down and has coffee with Frank. Frank decides he will come to Starbucks at 9:00 am for coffee more often in the future.
c) Cheryl loves coffee. She orders a coffee at Starbucks but burns her mouth on it because it is too hot. After a couple of occurrences of this, Cheryl stops coming to Starbucks for coffee.
d) Sam was walking to Starbucks for coffee. On his way, he lost his wallet to a pickpocket. Sam no longer walks to that Starbucks for coffee.
a) Jo is sitting near a window at Starbucks having a cup of coffee. The sun is streaming in the window, and it is too warm for Jo-she is beginning to perspire. Jo moves to another chair away from the window, where it is shady. The next time Jo goes to Starbucks, she sees the sun shining in the window again and sits in the chair in the shade instead.
Mary Jo decides to implement a negative reinforcement intervention with one of her students, Anjali, to increase the amount of work Anjali completes. Mary Jo tells Anjali, if you complete 15 math problems today (Monday), you don't have to do your math worksheet on Friday. What is one problem that might arise with this intervention?
a) Reinforcement is available for a competing behavior.
b) There is little difference in the stimulus conditions before the response (completing work) occurs and after the response occurs.
c) The stimulus change following the occurrence of target behavior is not immediate.
d) Mary Jo is being inconsistent in her delivery of reinforcement.
c) The stimulus change following the occurrence of target behavior is not immediate.
Unlike assessments for identifying positive reinforcers, assessments for negative reinforcers must place equal emphasis on _______________ as well as the consequence events for target behavior.
a) The EO or antecedent event
b) The future occurrence of the target behavior
c) The stimulus
d) Punishment
a) The EO or antecedent event
The key difference between an escape contingency and an avoidance contingency is:
a) In an escape contingency the future probability of the target behavior increases, while the future probability of the target behavior decreases with an avoidance contingency.
b) In an escape contingency the EO is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior, while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is not present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior.
c) In an escape contingency the EO is not present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior, while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior.
d) In an escape contingency, there is a warning stimulus that signals an aversive stimulus is imminent, while in an avoidance contingency there is no such warning stimulus.
b) In an escape contingency the EO is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior, while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is not present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior.
Which of the following is an example of free-operant avoidance?
a) Jackie crosses the street when she sees Donna come around the corner on the next block so that she doesn't have to talk to her.
b) Lavonda puts on a bicycle helmet when she rides her bike so that she doesn't hurt her head in the event that she falls off her bike.
c) Nathaniel puts down the hurricane shutters on his Florida home when he hears that a tropical storm is approaching so that his windows do not get broken.
d) All of these
d) All of these
Which of the following behaviors could be maintained by negative reinforcement?
a) Completing school work.
b) Cleaning a bedroom
c) Tantrums
d) All of these
d) All of these
An unconditioned negative reinforcer:
a) Is one that began as a neutral stimulus.
b) Acquired its aversive qualities by being paired with another aversive stimulus.
c) Is one that strengthens behavior in the absence of prior learning.
d) Can be thought of as an inherited negative reinforcer.
e) Third and fourth choices .
e) Third and fourth choices .
The textbook describes a study by Ahearn and colleagues (1996), in which negative reinforcement was used to increase food acceptance in children. In this example, during baseline, bite acceptances produced access to toys and bite refusals produced removal of the spoon (negative reinforcement). During the intervention, bite refusals no longer produced removal of the spoon. Instead, the spoon was only removed if a bite was accepted. As soon as a bite was accepted and every time a bite was accepted, the spoon was briefly removed. Which factors that are important to consider for effectively changing behavior with negative reinforcement are illustrated in this example?
a) The stimulus change following the occurrence of the target behavior was immediate.
b) The difference in stimulation prior to and after the response occurred was large.
c) The occurrence of the target response consistently produced escape.
d) Reinforcement was unavailable for competing responses.
e) All of these
f) None of these
e) All of these
The study by Rodgers and Iwata (1991) that analyzed the effects of positive reinforcement, error correction procedures, and an avoidance procedure demonstrated that:
a) Error correction procedures may produce learning, at least in part, due to an avoidance contingency.
b) Positive reinforcement was the most effective procedure for producing correct performance.
c) Error correction procedures and avoidance procedures produced the most correct responding.
d) All of these
e) None of these
a) Error correction procedures may produce learning, at least in part, due to an avoidance contingency.
Ethical concerns about the use of negative reinforcement stem from:
a) Having to deprive the individual of positive reinforcement for an extended period of time.
b) The presence of antecedent aversive stimuli in the individual's environment.
c) The potential for creating a context that generates undesired behaviors.
d) The presentation of aversive stimuli contingent upon a target behavior displayed by an individual.
e) Second and third choices.
e) Second and third choices.
The potential negative side effects (e.g., crying, running away) of negative reinforcement are similar to the side effects associated with:
a) Positive Reinforcement
b) Punishment
c) Stimulus Control
d) All of these
e) None of these
b) Punishment
Every time Baxter raised his hand in class, Mrs. Tulley called on him. What schedule of reinforcement is Baxter's hand raising on?
a) Intermittent reinforcement
b) Fixed-interval
c) Continuous reinforcement
d) Fixed-ratio 2
c) Continuous reinforcement
Timmy has just recently begun clearing his plate after he finishes his meal. Timmy's mother really likes this new behavior and would like to see more of it. Which schedule of reinforcement should Timmy's mother use to strengthen Timmy's new behavior of clearing his plate?
a) Variable-ratio 8
b) Intermittent reinforcement
c) Fixed-ratio 10
d) Continuous reinforcement
d) Continuous reinforcement
Which schedule of reinforcement occurs when two or more contingencies of reinforcement operate independently and simultaneously for two or more behaviors?
a) Variable-ratio schedules of reinforcement
b) Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
c) Fixed-interval schedules of reinforcement
d) Multiple schedules of reinforcement
b) Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
Which schedule of reinforcement presents two or more basic schedules of reinforcement in an alternating (usually random) sequence usually occurring successively and independently with no correlated discriminative stimuli?
a) Multiple schedules of reinforcement
b) Alternative schedules of reinforcement
c) Variable-interval schedules of reinforcement
d) Mixed schedules of reinforcement
d) Mixed schedules of reinforcement
Which schedule of reinforcement produces a post-reinforcement pause?
a) Fixed ratio
b) Continuous reinforcement schedule
c) Tandem schedules of reinforcement
d) Variable-interval schedules of reinforcement
a) Fixed ratio
To gradually reduce a high-frequency behavior, which schedule of reinforcement is the most appropriate?
a) Differential reinforcement of high rates of responding
b) Differential reinforcement of low rates of responding
c) Fixed-ratio schedules of reinforcement
d) Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
b) Differential reinforcement of low rates of responding
Schedule thinning refers to:
a) Gradually decreasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
b) Quickly increasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
c) Gradually increasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
d) Moving gradually from an intermittent schedule to a continuous reinforcement schedule.
c) Gradually increasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
Common behavioral characteristics associated with ________ include avoidance, aggression, and unpredictable pauses in responding.
a) Ratio strain
b) Post-reinforcement pause
c) Scallop effect
d) Fixed interval
a) Ratio strain
Which schedule of reinforcement is identical to the chained schedule except it does not use discriminative stimuli with the elements in the chain?
a) Mixed schedule of reinforcement
b) Fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement
c) Tandem schedule of reinforcement
d) Chained schedule of reinforcement
c) Tandem schedule of reinforcement
When the frequency of a time-filling behavior increases as a side effect of other behavior maintained by a schedule of reinforcement, this is referred to as:
a) Ratio strain
b) Post-reinforcement pause
c) Schedule induced
d) Schedule thinning
c) Schedule induced
Which of the following statements describes the definition of positive punishment?
a) The presentation of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
b) The presentation of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
c) The removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
d) The removal of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
b) The presentation of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
Which of the following statements describes the definition of negative punishment?
a) The presentation of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
b) The presentation of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
c) The removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
d) The removal of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
c) The removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
Which statement best describes recovery from punishment?
a) After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment contingency will recover.
b) When the punishment contingency is implemented, the behavior of interest may initially increase in rate, followed by a rapid decline in frequency.
c) After punishment is discontinued, the behavior of interest may gradually reappear, only to disappear on its own, regardless of existing environmental contingencies.
d) The period of time the implementer of the punishment contingency requires to "recover" from the emotional side effects of using punishment.
a) After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment contingency will recover.
Which of the following is not a factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment listed in the chapter?
a) Immediacy
b) Intensity
c) Variation
d) Schedule
c) Variation
The use of a punishment procedure may cause unwanted side effects to appear. The chapter presents several side effects associated with the use of punishment. Which of the following is not a side effect listed in the chapter?
a) Undesirable emotional responses
b) Avoidance and escape
c) Increased rate of problem behavior
d) Decreased self-esteem
d) Decreased self-esteem
Little Peter was walking along the fence of his uncle's dairy farm. Peter reached up and grabbed the wire along the fence, not realizing it was electrified. After recovering from the pain caused by the shock, Peter never again touched the fence wires. Which statement best describes the shock stimulus felt by Peter?
a) Negative Reinforcement
b) Negative Punishment
c) Bad Judgment
d) Positive Punishment
d) Positive Punishment
Which statement best describes positive punishment?
a) The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again
b) The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again
c) A stimulus delivered with good intentions
d) The removal of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again
b) The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again
Which statement best describes the procedure of response blocking?
a) Blocking the occurrence of the antecedent stimulus associated with the occurrence of the problem behavior
b) Delivering a wood block to the student prior to the occurrence of a behavioral response
c) Physically intervening as soon as the student begins to emit a problem behavior to prevent the completion of the response
d) The interventionist closing his or her eyes to deny the student pleasure after engaging in the problem behavior
c) Physically intervening as soon as the student begins to emit a problem behavior to prevent the completion of the response
Punishment should be thought of as an "eye-for-an-eye" procedure.
a) True
b) False
b) False
Which statement is not recommended as a guideline for the use of punishment?
a) Test punisher on your pet prior to implementing it with your student
b) Conduct punisher assessment
c) Use the least intensity of punishment that is effective
d) Deliver the punisher immediately
a) Test punisher on your pet prior to implementing it with your student
Carr and Lovaas (1983) recommended that practitioners experience any punisher personally before the treatment begins for what reason?
a) It reminds the practitioner that it is a sadistic procedure
b) It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort.
c) It reminds the practitioner that the technique is designed to increase the appropriate behavior of the student.
d) It allows the practitioner to determine a baseline of discomfort which he/she then increases rapidly as it is administered to the student.
b) It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort.
Which of the following is not listed in the chapter as an ethical consideration regarding the use of punishment?
a) Right to safe and humane treatment
b) Least restrictive alternative
c) Right to effective treatment
d) Most restrictive alternative
d) Most restrictive alternative
Sean was responsible for designing an intervention for a fifth grade student who engaged in severe problem behavior consisting of throwing chairs at the teacher when an assignment was given. Sean decided to utilize a contingent physical restraint every time the child threw a chair. Sean is violating the ethical consideration of:
a) Right to safe and humane treatment
b) Least restrictive alternative
c) Right to effective treatment
d) Sean is not violating any ethical considerations
b) Least restrictive alternative
Which statement regarding the strength of applied behavior analysis is not supported in the punishment chapter?
a) Recognize and appreciate punishment's natural role and contributions to survival and learning
b) Increase the use of punishment procedures over the use of reinforcement-based interventions.
c) Increase basic and applied research on punishment.
d) View treatments featuring positive punishment as default technologies
b) Increase the use of punishment procedures over the use of reinforcement-based interventions.
Many of the recommendations for punishment are derived from basic research conducted more than _____ years ago.
a) 5
b) 20
c) 10
d) 40
d) 40
Who was the first to use the term Establishing Operation?
a) Skinner
b) Michael
c) Keller and Schoenfeld
d) Martinez-Diaz
c) Keller and Schoenfeld
Increases/decreases the current reinforcing effectiveness of something
a) Reinforcer establishing/abolishing effect
b) Evocative/abative effect
a) Reinforcer establishing/abolishing effect
Increases/decreases the current frequency of all behavior that has been reinforced by something.
a) Reinforcer establishing/abolishing effect
b) Evocative/abative effect
b) Evocative/abative effect
Pain functions as a reinforcer
a) True
b) False
b) False
EO’s alter evocative strength of relevant SD’s
a) True
b) False
a) True
SD’s _______ and S^’s ______. (b/c of the differential avail of a reinforcer, EO’s evoke or abate b/c of the differential effectiveness of a reinforcer)
a) Evoke and abate
b) Reinforce and punish
c) Antecedent and consequence
a) Evoke and abate
Which of the following effects increases the value of a reinforcer?
a) Abolishing effect
b) Establishing effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Abative effect
b) Establishing effect
Which of the following effects decreases the value of a reinforcer?
a) Abolishing effect
b) Establishing effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Abative effect
a) Abolishing effect
Which effect decreases the momentary frequency of behavior?
a) Abolishing effect
b) Establishing effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Abative effect
d) Abative effect
Which effect increases the momentary frequency of behavior?
a) Abolishing effect
b) Establishing effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Abative effect
c) Evocative effect
11) What is the evocative effect of alcohol deprivation for an alcoholic?
a) Shakes and jitters
b) Go to rehab
c) Momentary frequency of behavior related to getting alcohol increases
d) There is an EO for alcohol
c) Momentary frequency of behavior related to getting alcohol increases
What is the abolishing effect of chocolate candy satiation:
a) There is no EO for chocolate
b) For a period of time, chocolate candy is a less effective form of reinforcement
c) Wanting chocolate is abated
d) You may get sick
b) For a period of time, chocolate candy is a less effective form of reinforcement
When you move from Florida to Alaska you are exposed to temperatures below freezing, what kind of effect does this have on the effectiveness of getting warmer as a reinforcer?
a) Establishing effect
b) Abative effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Abolishing effect
a) Establishing effect
You have not eaten for 5 hours and are driving down the street and you see the Krispy Kreme sign that says "Donuts - Hot and Fresh" and you immediately pull into the parking lot to get one. The sign functioned as:
a) SD
b) S^
c) SDP
a) SD
You have not eaten for 5 hours and are driving down the street and you see the Krispy Kreme sign that says "Donuts - Hot and Fresh" and you immediately pull into the parking lot to get one. The fact that you have not eaten for 5 hours functions as:
a) MO
b) AO
c) SD
a) MO
If you had just eaten a half of a pizza and French fries, and are driving down the street and you see the Krispy Kreme sign that says "Donuts - Hot and Fresh." The sign would function as an:
a) MO
b) AO
c) SD
b) AO
If Joey's mom constantly praises him for coming home by his curfew; however his dad never says anything. Joey’s mom is the ________ for reinforcement.
a) MO
b) SD
c) SDP
b) SD
Joey’s dad, who never praises him coming home for curfew, is the __________ for reinforcement.
a) SD
b) Sdelta
c) SDP
b) Sdelta
19) Joey’s grandmother, who lives with them, stays up every night until 1130pm, When Joey comes home by his curfew of 11, she makes him stay up and play UNO with her for 30minutes. Joey hates playing UNO with her. Joey’s grandmother functions as a _________ in relation to coming home on time.
a) SD
b) Sdelta
c) SDP
c) SDP
You are in a bar and they have salted peanuts for you to snack on. They have no water available, so you order a Corona. The peanuts would function as:
a) EO related to reinforcement
b) AO related to reinforcement
a) EO related to reinforcement
You are in a bar and they have salted peanuts for you to snack on. They have no water available. Drinking a 20 oz bottle of water before you go into the bar and eat some peanuts would function as:
a) EO related to reinforcement
b) AO related to reinforcement
a) EO related to reinforcement
Mr. Smith recently lost his job and has very little money left in savings. He is very old and unable to mow his own lawn and had to fire his lawn guy to cut costs. His neighborhood association fines him $300 for having his lawn unkempt.

Having little money, no job, and a $300 fine would:
a) decrease the effectiveness of the fine
b) increase the effectiveness of the fine
b) increase the effectiveness of the fine
Mr. Smith recently lost his job and has very little money left in savings. He is very old and unable to mow his own lawn and had to fire his lawn guy to cut costs. His neighborhood association fines him $300 for having his lawn unkempt.

Having little money, no job, and a $300 fine would function as:
a) An EO for punishment
b) An AO for punishment
a) An EO for punishment
Mr. Smith recently lost his job and has very little money left in savings. He is very old and unable to mow his own lawn and had to fire his lawn guy to cut costs. His neighborhood association fines him $300 for having his lawn unkempt.

Mr Smith wins the lottery a week later in now has millions. He receives another $300 fine for his lawn. He hires a fabulous lawn guy to get his yard back in shape. Having tons of money and a new lawn guy would:
a) decrease the effectiveness of the fine
b) increase the effectiveness of the fine
a) decrease the effectiveness of the fine
Mr. Smith recently lost his job and has very little money left in savings. He is very old and unable to mow his own lawn and had to fire his lawn guy to cut costs. His neighborhood association fines him $300 for having his lawn unkempt.

Mr Smith wins the lottery a week later in now has millions. He receives another $300 fine for his lawn. He hires a fabulous lawn guy to get his yard back in shape.

Having won the lottery and a new lawn guy would function as:
a) An EO for punishment
b) An AO for punishment
b) An AO for punishment
26) Ed tells Jenny “give me your car keys or I’ll punch you in the face”. Jenny gives him the car keys as in the past he has hit her. Ed’s statement functioned as:
a) SD
b) SDP
c) UEO
d) CEO-R
e) Punishment
d) CEO-R
Ed tells Jenny “give me your car keys or I’ll punch you in the face”. Jenny gives him the car keys as in the past he has hit her.

In the past when he actually hit her, the punch that evoked giving the car keys:
a) SD
b) SDP
c) UEO
d) CEO-R
e) Punishment
c) UEO
28) When Gracie gives a presentation she prefers to talk without a microphone as the loud voice produced by the microphone makes her feel very uncomfortable and nervous. However today she has to present in an auditorium and the audience is unable to hear her and she must use the microphone. The large audience functioned as:
a) CEO-T
b) CEO-R
c) CEO-S
a) CEO-T
29) In the auditorium Gracie needs to get the microphone hooked up, she sees the AV guy which evokes her to approach him to get her microphone hooked up. The sight of the AV guy functioned as:
a) EO
b) AO
29) In the auditorium Gracie needs to get the microphone hooked up, she sees the AV guy which evokes her to approach him to get her microphone hooked up. The sight of the AV guy functioned as:
a) EO
b) AO
c) SD
d) S^
c) SD
You are at a restaurant and they bring you a T-Bone steak that you ordered. There is only a fork on your napkin. Sight of the T-Bone steak and a steak knife:
a) CMO-S
b) CMO-R
c) CMO-T
c) CMO-T
You are at a restaurant and they bring you a T-Bone steak that you ordered. There is only a fork on your napkin.

you are sitting at the table needing a steak knife and you see your server walk by, server functions as:
a) SD
b) EO
c) CMO-T
a) SD
You are at a restaurant and they bring you a T-Bone steak that you ordered. There is only a fork on your napkin.

you are sitting at the table needing a steak knife and you see your server walk by.

After you cut up all your steak what effect will this have on your knife asking behavior?
a) Evocative
b) Abative
c) Establishing
d) Abolishing
b) Abative
You are at a restaurant and they bring you a T-Bone steak that you ordered. There is only a fork on your napkin.

you are sitting at the table needing a steak knife and you see your server walk by.

What is the EO for needing a knife in the T-Bone example?
a) Ordering your food
b) Sight of the steak
c) Sight of server
d) Sight of the fork/napkin
b) Sight of the steak
Which of the following would be most likely to be a surrogate CMO?
a) Only smoke cigarettes when you are at a bar
b) Needing a screwdriver for a slotted screw
c) Mom saying “get in your bed or I’ll whoop you”
a) Only smoke cigarettes when you are at a bar
Angel is a single mom who has a consulting job where her cell phone is her main method of communication with clients. She makes very little money and has very little money in savings. She has wanted to upgrade her cell phone for many months now but has not because of money constraints. She gets paid on Fridays. This Wednesday she dropped her phone and it broke and no longer works. Friday she got paid and drove by the Sprint store, she pulled in and bought a new phone.

Broken cell phone functioned as:
a) SD
b) S^
c) EO
d) AO
c) EO
Angel is a single mom who has a consulting job where her cell phone is her main method of communication with clients. She makes very little money and has very little money in savings. She has wanted to upgrade her cell phone for many months now but has not because of money constraints. She gets paid on Fridays. This Wednesday she dropped her phone and it broke and no longer works. Friday she got paid and drove by the Sprint store, she pulled in and bought a new phone.
Sight of the Sprint store functioned as:
a) SD
b) S^
c) EO
d) AO
a) SD
If conditioned aversive stimulus evokes avoidance response it functions as?
a) CEO-T
b) CEO-S
c) CEO-R
c) CEO-R
39) Karin is watching Jose’s videos in the living room, and it is very loud and there are weird noises and it is disruptive to her husband doing work in the other room. Her husband asks her to put on her headphones. With respect to the loud videos and the request to wear headphones, the loud videos functioned as?
a) AO
b) SD
c) EO
c) EO
40) Paul works for a boss that he compares to a drill sergeant in the army. The boss is very demanding and threatening, often times if his work is not done to her standards she makes him stay all night long if necessary to get it right. When he sees her coming he immediately sits up straight in his seat and make sure he is working diligently. The sight of the Boss functions as:
a) CEO-T
b) CEO-S
c) CEO-R
c) CEO-R
You are a consultant on the road frequently. One day 2pm rolls around and you realize that you are starving; you pull into the first fast food place you come across and order a large meal. You pull away and eat all of the food very quickly. You go to reach for your drink and realize you didn’t wait to get it and after eating all of this fast food you are really hungry. You are driving to a client’s home and a food mart gas station is up ahead and you immediately pull in to buy a drink. You buy a 32oz. drink and drink the whole thing.

With respect to pulling into the food mart to get a drink, what is the EO?
a) Eating food
b) Forgetting your original drink
c) Being thirsty
a) Eating food
You are a consultant on the road frequently. One day 2pm rolls around and you realize that you are starving; you pull into the first fast food place you come across and order a large meal. You pull away and eat all of the food very quickly. You go to reach for your drink and realize you didn’t wait to get it and after eating all of this fast food you are really hungry. You are driving to a client’s home and a food mart gas station is up ahead and you immediately pull in to buy a drink. You buy a 32oz. drink and drink the whole thing.

What effect will drinking 32 oz have on drinking more?
a) Evocative
b) Abative
c) Abolishing
b) Abative
Aversive stimuli ____________ avoidance response.
a) Abate
b) Establish
c) Abolish
d) Evoke
d) Evoke
In the line of work I do I work with many children who have been severely physically abused. These children tend to be aggressive toward others following a coercive/punitive interaction with their current caregiver. In relation to aggressive behavior against others, history of beatings and current experience with coercive interaction functioned as:
a) CEO-R
b) CEO-S
c) UEO
d) CEO
c) UEO
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Tone functions as:
a) EO
b) SD
c) S^
b) SD
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Effect of tone on lever press:
a) Abate
b) Evoke
c) Establish
d) Abolish
b) Evoke
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

S^ condition:
a) Tone on
b) Tone off
c) Shock on
d) Shock off
b) Tone off
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Shock onset functions as:
a) EO
b) SD
c) S^
d) AO
a) EO
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Lever press extinguished by:
a) Shock remaining on
b) Shock off
c) Tone on
d) Tone off
a) Shock remaining on
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Response is:
a) Shock on
b) Lever press
c) Shock turned off
b) Lever press
Tone on shock on  lever press  shock off
Tone off  shock on  lever press  shock still on

Lever press negatively reinforced by:
a) Shock on
b) Shock off
c) Tone on
d) Tone off
b) Shock off
During a math game every time a student shouted out an answer before being called on that student was placed in the penalty box and not allowed to participate for two questions. This is an example of which time-out procedure?
a) Hallway time-out
b) Contingent observation
c) Planned ignoring
d) Bonus response cost
e) Time-out ribbon
b) Contingent observation
Mr. Hendry uses a time-out ribbon for any students who are not in their seats before the bell rings. They have to wear the ribbon for two minutes, during which time they cannot earn extra-credit points. What is wrong with Mr. Hendry's application of the time-out ribbon?
a) The fine should be longer.
b) The time-out ribbon should not be used for social behaviors.
c) Students should have free access to recess.
d) The time-out ribbon should be paired with the opportunity to earn reinforcement.
b) The time-out ribbon should not be used for social behaviors.
A punishment procedure has been put in place for Carlos. Whenever he swears in class his teacher says, "Carlos, swearing is not allowed in this classroom," and he is escorted to the time-out room where he has to stay for at least five minutes. His teacher has used the procedure for three weeks and his swearing has not decreased at all. What is the problem in this example?
a) The time-out room is not functioning as punishment.
b) Carlos should be placed in the time-out room for a longer period of time.
c) His teacher needs to explain to him why he is being placed in time-out.
d) His teacher has not done enough to reinforce the time-in setting.
a) The time-out room is not functioning as punishment.
Before implementing a contingent observation program for cutting in line at the drinking fountain, Mrs. Salkey made sure to send a note home to guardians telling them about the program and asking the guardians to contact her if there were any objections. In addition she checked with her principal to make sure she was following the schoolwide behavior management program. Which part of using time-out effectively does this example best exemplify?
a) Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b) Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c) Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d) Explain the time-out rules.
e) Evaluate effectiveness.
f) Obtain permission.
f) Obtain permission.
When implementing a contingent observation program for cutting in line at the drinking fountain, Mrs. Salkey made sure to provide lots of tokens for students who waited their turn. Which part of using time-out effectively does this example best exemplify?
a) Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b) Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c) Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d) Explain the time-out rules.
e) Evaluate effectiveness.
f) Obtain permission.
a) Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
When implementing the contingent observation program, Mrs. Salkey kept a record of each student who cut in line every day for one week. By Friday there were no students who cut in line. Which part of using time-out effectively does this example best exemplify?
a) Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b) Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c) Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d) Explain the time-out rules.
e) Evaluate effectiveness
f) Obtain permission
e) Evaluate effectiveness
Mrs. Salkey used tokens for waiting along with a contingent observation program. This approach best exemplifies:
a) Rapid suppression of behavior
b) Combined approaches
c) Ease of application
d) Acceptability
b) Combined approaches
Mr. Marley docks the class one minute of extra recess time every time he has to say, "people quiet down please." This best exemplifies which response cost method?
a) Direct fines
b) Bonus response cost
c) Using a response cost with a group
d)Combining with positive reinforcement
c) Using a response cost with a group
Mr. Marley docks the class one minute of extra recess time every time he has to say, "people quiet down please." In addition to using a response cost with an entire group Mr. Marley is also using which procedure?
a) Direct fines
b) Bonus response cost
c) Using a response cost with a group
d) Combining with positive reinforcement
b) Bonus response cost
Mrs. Webb uses a response-cost procedure in which a student loses all points toward participation in a monthly pizza party any time he or she says "shut up" to another student. As a result, whenever students lose their points, they say "shut up" more often. What is the problem?
a) The magnitude of the fine is too great.
b) The points weren't functioning as reinforcers.
c) The students became more aggressive.
d) The fine should have been larger.
a) The magnitude of the fine is too great.
_________ alters the effectiveness of some object or event as a reinforcer and the current frequency of all behavior that has been reinforced by that stimulus, object, or event.
a) Discriminative stimulus
b) Establishing operation
c) Behavior-altering effects
d) Value-altering effects
b) Establishing operation
The term _________ has been suggested to replace the term establishing operation (EO).
a) Motivating operation
b) Evocative effect
c) Abative effect
d) Abolishing operation
a) Motivating operation
The effect that can produce either an increase or decrease in the reinforcing effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event is the:
a) Behavior-altering effect
b) Abative effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Value-altering effect
d) Value-altering effect
The effect that can produce either an increase or decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event is the:
a) Behavior-altering effect
b) Abative effect
c) Evocative effect
d) Value-altering effect
a) Behavior-altering effect
Motivating operations (MOs) and SDs are both
a) Antecedent variables that alter the future frequency of some behavior
b) Consequent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
c) Antecedent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
d) Consequent variables that alter the future frequency of some behavior
c) Antecedent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
_________ is (are) related to the differential reinforcing effectiveness of a particular type of environmental event.
a) Motivating operations
b) Discriminative stimulus
c) Motivating variables
d) Discriminative operations
a) Motivating operations
This type of motivating operation has value-altering effects that are not learned.
a) Conditioned motivating operations
b) Unconditioned motivating operations
c) Surrogate motivating operations
d) Reflexive motivating operations
b) Unconditioned motivating operations
Which of the following is an example of a UMO as it relates to humans?
a) Getting paid for a job every 2 weeks
b) Putting on a sweater to go outside
c) Sleeping after a week of not getting any sleep
d) Playing with your children after they have been in school all day
c) Sleeping after a week of not getting any sleep
The type of motivating operation that accomplishes what the original motivating operation it was paired with did is a
a) Surrogate CMO
b) Transitive CMO
c) Reflexive CMO
d) Substantive CMO
a) Surrogate CMO
This type of motivating operation alters a relation to itself by acquiring MO effectiveness by preceding a worsening or improvement.
a) Surrogate CMO
b) Transitive CMO
c) Reflexive CMO
d) Substantive CMO
c) Reflexive CMO
This type of motivating operation makes something else effective as a reinforcer because of its relation or association with an unconditioned reinforcer.
a) Surrogate CMO
b) Transitive CMO
c) Reflexive CMO
d) Substantive CMO
b) Transitive CMO
The continued study of motivating operations is most important to understanding in what field of applied behavior analysis?
a) The three-term contingency
b) How people learn
c) Why people learn
d) How to best refine the terminology
a) The three-term contingency