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805 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
why is hearng considered mechanoreception?
because the ear receives mechanical vibrations (sound waves) & translates them into nerve impulses.
what is proprioreception?
the perception of gravity or forces applied to a structure
___________ is the ability to sense changes in tension.

chapter ear, hearing, balance
prioreception
___________ process begins with the vibrations reaching external ear & ends up being interpreted as sound in the temporal lobe of the brain
mechanoreception
what is the difference between static & kinetic equilibrium?
in static equilibrium, a person can determine his or her nonmoving position. In dynamic equilibrium, motion is detected.
standing upright or lying down is an example of what?

chapter ear, hearing, balance
static equilibrium
sudden acceleration, abrupt turning, & spinning are examples of

chapter ear, hearing, balance
dynamic equilibrium
how do hair cells in the cochlea detect sound?
As sound waves travel down the external auditory meatus, they cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate, rocking the ear ossicles which are connected to the inner ear.
what are otoliths
calcium carbonate & protein embedded in the maculae.

when head is tipped otoliths cause the cilia to bend, indicating that the position of the head has changed
what two chambers make up the vestibule?
utrilce & saccule
these two chambers are involved in the interpretation of static equilibrium & acceleration.
the midle ear consiste of (3)
tympanic cavity
ossicles (3)
auditory (eustachian) tube
What are the ossicles in middle ear (3)
malleus - attached to tympanic which is attached to the
incus which is attached to the
stapes
what are the 3 regions the inner ear is composed of?
cochelar
vestibule
semicircular
external features of the eye
pupil
iris
sclera
conjunctive membrane
lateral commissure
medial commissure
lacrimal caruncle
upper & lower eye lid
eyelashes & eyebrows
exrinsic muscles
name the 6 extrinsic muscles of the eye
lateral rectus
medial rectus
superior rectus
inferior rectus
inferior oblique - superior & laterally
superior oblique - inferior & laterally
structure important to the maintenance of the exterior eye (tears)
lacrimal apparatus (consist of lacrimal gland)
where is the lacrimal gland

what is it's function

where do tears dran
superior & lateral to the eye

lacrimal secretions (tears) bath & protect eye; clean dust from its surface

through nasolacrimal duct into nasal cavity
what is fovea centralis?
structure in center of macula lutea; its a region where the concentration of cones is greatest & when focusing on an object intently you're directing the image to the fovea.
fovea centrailis & macula lutea are located where
posterior wall of the eye
what is macula lutea
it's part of the photoreceptive layer composed of cones.
rods are important for determing?
the shape of objects
cones are involved in
color vision & visual activity (fine details)
Astigmatism is?
when the cornea, or lens, is not perfectly smooth
rods are found in
photoreceptive layer of the posterior wall of the eye
a postive number on a opthalmoscope indicates
hyperopis (farsightedness)

eyeball is short & image is focused posterior to the retina
a negative diopter reading
nearsightedness (myopia)

eyeball is long & images farther back in retina
most common cause of color blindness
changes in genes on X chromosomes

Y gene doesn't cary the gene for color vision
what is gustation
sense of taste
what is olfaction
sense of smell
sense of taste is transmitted by what nerves?
facial & glossopharyngeal nerves
sense of smell is transmitted by what nerves
olfactory nerves
what is umami
sense of taste refering to savory
purpose of olfactory reflex
protection move away from possible harmful crap.
7 types of sensory receptors
photoreceptors - detect light
thermoreceptors - temp
proprioreceptors - changes in tension (joints)
pain/nociceptors - naked nerve endings in skin or stomach
mechanoreceptors - mechanical stimuli (touch, hearing, equilibrium)
baroreceptors - pressure
chemoreceptors - chemical (taste, smell)
what is the difference between meissner corpuscles & merkel discs?
light touch receptors
meissner in upper portion of dermis
merkel upper portion of dermis & lower of epidermis
what is pacinina (lamellated) corpuscles?
deep touch or pressure receptors in dermis far from epidermis
example leaning against wall
what feature of the eye bends light
cornea
what is the difference between tonic & phasic touch
tonic receptors constantly perceive stimuli
phasic adapt to stimuli
what is referred pain
perception of pain in area of body when the pain is actually somewhere else. (example heart attck; felt in shoulder & arm)
absolute temp reception

relative temp reception
room temp should feel the same whether hand came from very cold or warm place

cold hand in room temp water should feel warmer; hot hand in room temp water should feel colder
what are pain receptors
naked nerve endings in the dermis that respond to many environmental stimuli
trace reflex from stimuli to response
receptor
afferent (sensory)
integrating center
efferent (motor)
effector
what are stretch reflexes
receptors in muscle spindle
increse in action potential in sensory neuron
impulse travels to motor neuron, causing contraction of muscle stretched
reflexes are tested because
decreased response may indicated disease or damage to nervous system.
cervical & lumbar enlagment is due to
increased neural input & output in extremities
what is cauda equina
extension of parallel nerve fibers in the lumbar & sacral regions
where does sensory information enter the spinal cord?
posterior horns of the gray matter
somatic nerves take
sensory info from the body to spincal cord & motor info from spinal cord to body
where do motor impulses exit the spinal cord
anterior horns of the gray matter
each side of the gray matter in spincal cord is connected by
gray commissure
__________ runs stright down (the length) of the spinal cord in the gray matter
central canal
what are the 3 meings covering the spinal cord
dura matter
arachnoid matter
pia matter
the sheath that wraps a single nerve fiber is?
endoneurium
sheath that wraps around groups of nerve fibers is?
perineurium
the wrapping that covers the entire nerve is
epineurium
3 connective tissue wrappings around nerves
endoneurium
perineurium
epineurium
what are the 4 major plexues
cervical (C1-4) - phrenic
brachial (C4-T1) - radial, median, ulnar, musculocutaneous, axillary
lumber (L1-4) - femoral, obturator
sacral (L4-S4) - sciatic (tibial & common peroneal)
three menings covering the brain
dura matter
arachnoid matter
pia matter
where do we find four ventricles of the brain?
later ventricles (2) - center of each cerebral hemisphere
thrid ventricle - thalamus
fourth ventricle - posterior to cerebral aqueduct & inferior to cerebellum
name the four ventricles of the brain
2 lateral ventricles
third ventricle
fourth ventricle
frontal lobe function
higher functions
intellect
abstract reasoning
creativity
social awareness
language
broca's area (formation of speech muscles)
directing part of body to move
parietal lobe function
receives sensory info from body (pain, heat, cold, etc)
wernicke's area (both parietal & temporal) - recognizing language
occipital lobe function
visual area
shape
color
distance
recollection of past visual images
translating words to thought
temporal lobe function
primary auditory cortex
interprets hearing impulses
distinguishes nature of sound (music, speech, noise)
location of sound
distance of sound
pitch
rhythm
words into thought
sense of smell (olfactory centers)
taste (gustatory centers)
difference between left & right hemisphere
left involved in language & reasoning (Broca's area)

right involved in space & pattern perceptions, artistic awarness, imagination, music comprehension
Broca's area is
in the frontal lobe and is repsonsible for controlling formation of motor speech
wernicke's area is
in temporal & parietal and is involved in the formation of language, such as recognizing written & spoken language.
otic nerve is
a sensory nerve that leads from the eye to the base of the brain & forms the optic chiasma

sight
olfactory nerve
smell - passes through ethmoid bone & turns into olfactory tract then to olfactory bulb.
four functions of the nervous system
communication - between various regions of body
coordination - of body functions (digestion, walking)
orientation - environment
assimilation - of info
distinguish between CNS & PNS
CNS consist of brain & spinal cord

PNS composed of spinal nerves, dorsal root ganglia, somatic nerves, & cranial nerves
what are somatic nerves
those that radiate into the extremitites & other regions of the body
PNS sensory(afferent) diffision does what
conducts impules from regions of the body to CNS
PNS moter(efferent) division does what
conducts impulses from CNS to the various regions of the body.
What is the motor division two subunits
somatic nervous system
autonomic nervous system
somatic motor nervous system takes impulses from
the CNS & innverates muscles
autonomic nervous system innervates
glands, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and organs
nodes of ranvier
small gaps between successive cells
nissl substance
rough endoplasmic reticulum of the neuron
axon hillock
triangle region of nerve body that without nissl substance and it leads to the axon
three basic types(shapes) of nerve cells
multipolar
bipolar
unipolar
bipolar neurons are located
in nerves conducting the sense of smell & vision
unipolar is
most of the common nerves in the body (somatic sensory nerves such as ulnar, femoral)
schwann cell (neurolemmocyte)
is a glial cell that wraps around the axon and they have significant amounts of lipoprotein (myelin) giving them a while color know as white matter.
four layers of muscle over abdonmen
transverse abdominis - deepest
rectus abdominis
internal abdominal oblique
external abdominal oblique
know the function of erector spinae
postural muscles of the back. Many muscles that are located between individual vertebrae and or ribs
sternocleidomastoid muscle
rotates the head; the right sternocleidomastoid turns head to the left and the left turns head to the right
diagastric muscle
two headed, depresses mandible. Inserts at hyoid important for tongue movement for speech & swallowing.
platysma muscle
inserts on madible & skin of lips; orgin fascia of pectora & deltoid. the thin wings that stick out the side of neck when lifting up chin and pouting
chewing(mastication) muscles of the face
masseter & temporalis
facial expression muscles
occipitofrontalis
orbicularis oris & oculi
zymoaticus major
risorius
deprssor labii inferioris
levator labii superioris
buccinator
mentalis
corrugator supercillii
occipitofrontalis does what
moves scalp around
orbicularis muscle does what
closes
zyomaticus major does what
elevates corner of mouth
risorius muscle does what
pulls lips latterally (laughing muscle)
depressor labii inferioris does what
pulls mouth muscles down when pouting
levator labii superioris does what
raises the skin of liip & expands nostrils (disguist)
buccinator muscle does what
puckers checks and pushes food toward molars
mentalis muscle does what
pouting
corrugator supercilii
furrows eyebrows
most hand finger flexors orginate
on the medial epicondyle of the humerus
most extensors originate on
the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
which nerves carry impulses from receptors to the brain or spinal cord
sensory
what is the purpose of myelinations
increases speed of impulse conduction
which type of neuroglia is responsible for blood-brain barrier
astrocytes
which area of the brain is the motor speech center
broca's area
which fissure divides the left & right hemisphere
longitudinal
which receptors sense pressure such as leaning against a wall>
pacinian corpuscules
the inner ear is composed of
semicircular canals
cochlea
vestibule
a relatively large bump on a bone
trachanter
which bone is meidal radius or ulna
ulna
the acromial process articulates with the
clavicle
what anterior structure joins the two pubis bones
symphysis pubis
which suture divides the frontal bone from the two parietal bones
coronal
anatomical name for lower jaw
mandibular
anatomical name for check bone
zygomatic bone
the sutures of the cranium are which kind of joint
fibrous
what quadrant of the abd cavity contains the majority of the liver
upper right
the sternum is __________ to the vertebrae
anterior
the head is ___________ to the feet
superior
DNA synthesis occurs during which phase of the cell cycle
S phase
the cell divides during which phase of mitosis?
telephase
fibrocartiliage is found
in areas of stress
during what phase of mitosis does cytokinesis start
starts at anaphase & continues in telephase
What does G1 represent in cell cycle
beg. of interphase - organelles began
two layers of integumentary system
epidermis
dermis
another name for C1
atlas
wich suture divides the two parietal bones
sagittal
the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
divides the two nasal canals
which type of synovial joint is our elbow?
hinge
what is the only major muscle posterior to humerus
triceps brachii
muscle at top of shoulder
deltoid
what muscles supinate the hand
supinator
where do we find the thenar eminence
below thumb, thick pad
define orgin
muscle attached, not moving
define insertion
muscle attached where movment happens
where do flexors of the hand orginate
medial epicondyle of humerus
action of the deltoid
flex trapezis
the _____ _______ extends digits 2-5
extensor digitalis
how many hamstring do we have
3
which muscles flex the thigh
rectus femorus
which muscle runs along the lateral side of the thigh
tensorfasciae latae
which long muscles flexes the digits
flexitorus longus digitorus
the biceps femoris is on the _________ side of the femur
posterior
the calcaneal tendon (achilies tendon) attaches the calcaneius bone to what muscle
gastronemius
which glial cells is responsible for nourishment
astrocytes
the structure that divides the 2 hemispheres from a suprior view
longitudinal fissure
what causes the cervical & lumbar enlargement
increased neural input & output
cells of skeletal muscle are called
fibers
cells of a cardiac muscle are called
myocytes
cardiac muscles are joined together by
intercaleted disc/ gap junctions
1. Which of the following is a part of the central nervous system?
A. Brain
B. Spinal Cord
C. Ganglia
D. Sensory receptors
E. Only A & B.
2. The peripheral nervous system
A. Includes the sensory, or afferent division.
B. Includes the motor, or efferent division.
C. Is external to the central nervous system.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B
3. The motor, or efferent division includes
A. The autonomic nervous system.
B. The somatic nervous system.
C. The sensory nervous division.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
4. A ganglion is
A. A cluster of axons outside the central nervous system.
B. A cluster of neuron cell bodies outside the central nervous system.
C. A cluster of axons within the central nervous system.
D. A cluster of neuron cell bodies within the central nervous system.
E. All of the above
5. A plexus is
A. A cluster of axons and in some cases neuron cell bodies outside the central nervous system.
B. A cluster of neuron cell bodies within the central nervous system.
C. A cluster of axons within the central nervous system.
D. A cluster of neuron cell bodies outside the central nervous system.
E. All of the above
6. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system
A. Transmits signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.
B. Is the sensory division.
C. Transmits signals from the central nervous system to effector organs.
D. Is the motor division.
E. Both A & B.
7. The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system is composed of
A. The motor division.
B. The somatic nervous system.
C. The autonomic nervous system.
D. Transmits signals from the central nervous system to effector organs.
E. All of the above.
8. The autonomic nervous system consists of the
A. Sympathetic division.
B. Parasympathetic division.
C. Enteric nervous system.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A & B.
9. The somatic nervous system
A. Conducts action potentials from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles.
B. Is under voluntary control.
C. Conducts action potentials to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and some glands.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A & B.
10. The autonomic nervous system
A. Conducts action potentials to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and some glands.
B. Is under involuntary or subconscious control.
C. Has two sets of neurons that exist between the central nervous system and the effector organs.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A & B.
11. Most of the neurons within the central nervous system and motor neurons ar
A. Bipolar neurons.
B. Multipolar neurons.
C. Unipolar neurons
D. Afferent neurons.
E. Neuroglia.
12. The nonneural cells that are more abundant in the central nervous system than neural cells are
A. Bipolar neurons.
B. Multipolar neurons.
C. Unipolar neurons
D. Afferent neurons.
E. Neuroglia.
13. Neuroglial cells that form foot-like processes that wrap around the surfaces of neurons and blood vessels to provide support are
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymal cells.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Satellite cells.
14. Neuroglial cells that have cilia that assist in moving cerebral spinal fluid through the cavities of the brain are
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymal cells.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Satellite cells
15. Neuroglial cells that function as specialized macrophages phagocytizing foreign substances, microorganisms, and necrotic tissue are
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymal cells.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Satellite cells.
16. Neuroglial cells of the central nervous system that have cytoplasmic extensions that wrap around multiple axons to form myelin sheaths are
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymal cells.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Satellite cells.
17. Neuroglial cells of the peripheral nervous system that form myelin sheaths around single axons are
A. Neurolemmocytes.
B. Schwann cells.
C. Oligodendrocytes.
D. Satellite cells.
E. Both A & B.
18. Cells found in the choroid plexus that secrete cerebral-spinal fluid are
A. Astrocytes.
B. Ependymal cells.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Satellite cells
19. Unmyelinated axons differ from myelinated axons by
A. Not being wrapped several times with myelin.
B. Having axons that rest within invaginations of the Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes.
C. Having no myelin wrapped around the axon.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
20. Gray matter in the nervous system is caused by
A. The presence of neuron cell bodies.
B. A lack of myelin.
C. The lack of vascular tissues in the area.
D. The presence of myelin covering neuron axons and cell bodies.
E. Both A & B.
21. Clusters of nerve cell bodies within the central nervous system are
A. Ganglia.
B. Fascicles.
C. Nuclei.
D. Plexuses.
E. Laminae
22. The potential difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a neuron plasma membrane at resting membrane potential is
A. Somewhere between –70 and –90 millivolts (mV).
B. 125 mV.
C. 70-90 mV.
D. 10-20 mV.
E. –10 to –20 mV
23. The difference(s) in ion concentration(s) between the inside and outside of the neurolemma during the resting membrane potential has
A. More Na+ outside the cell than inside.
B. More K+ inside the cell than outside.
C. More Na+ and K+ outside the cell than inside the cell.
D. More K+ and Na+ inside the cell than outside the cell.
E. Both A & B.
24. During the resting membrane potential the outside of the neurolemma is
A. Positively charged.
B. Negatively charged.
C. Neutral in charge.
D. Rapidly reversing back and forth from positive to negative charge.
25. The resting membrane potential results when the tendency for ___________ to diffuse out of the cell is balanced by the oppositely charged ions inside the cell
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Cl-
D. Ca2+
E. Negatively charged proteins.
26. Which of these terms are correctly matched with their definition or description?
A. Depolarization: membrane potential becomes more positive.
B. Hyperpolarization: the membrane becomes more polar and therefore more negative, as it does during the after potential.
C. Hypopolarization: the membrane potential becomes less negative.
D. Local potential: decrease the negative charge but is confined to a short region of the axon.
E. All of the above
27. The major function of the sodium-potassium pump is
A. To use up the extra ATP.
B. To pump Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell.
C. To generate the resting membrane potential
D. To maintain the concentration gradients of Na+ and K + across the
neurolemma.
E. All of the above.
28. Local potentials
A. Spread across the neurolemma in a decremental manner.
B. Are graded.
C. Do not propagate for long distances.
D. Can summate.
E. All of the above
29. The depolarization phase of an action potential results in the neurolemma
A. Becoming more permeable to K+, and potassium moves into the cell.
B. Becoming more permeable to Na+ , and sodium moves into the cell.
C. Becoming more permeable to Ca2+.
D. Becoming impermeable to ions of any kind
30. During repolarization of the plasma membrane
A. Na+ diffuse out of the cell.
B. Na+ diffuse into the cell.
C. K+ diffuse into the cell.
D. K+ diffuse out of the cell.
31. The absolute refractory period
A. Limits the number of action potentials that can be produced during a certain period of time.
B. Is a period of time when only a strong stimulus can produce another action potential.
C. Prevents another action potential from starting at the same place on the neurolemma.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
33. A supramaximal stimulus produces
A. The same number of action potentials as a maximal stimulus.
B. More action potentials than a submaximal stimulus.
C. More action potentials than a threshold stimulus.
D. All of the above.
E. More action potentials than a maximal stimulus.
34. Action potentials are conducted
A. More rapidly in large diameter axons than small diameter axons.
B. More rapidly in axons with nodes of Ranvier.
C. More rapidly in unmyelinated axons than in myelinated axons.
D. At the same rate whether the axon is myelinated or unmyelinated.
E. Both A & B.
35. Myelinated axons conduct impulses more rapidly than nonmyelinated axons because
A. Of saltatory conduction.
B. Of the nodes of Ranvier.
C. Voltage gated Na+ channels are concentrated at the Nodes of Ranvier.
D. Lipids within the membranes of the myelin sheath insulate the axon and force the local current to flow from one node to the next.
E. All of the above.
36. In chemical synapses neurotransmitter substances are stored in
A. The soma.
B. The ends of the dendritic spines.
C. The presynaptic terminals of the axon.
D. The postsynaptic membrane.
E. All of the above.
37. Spatial summation is defined as
A. Local potentials arrive within a time frame that allows them to summate and exceed threshold resulting in an action potential.
B. Local potentials are received at two different dendrites and summate at the trigger zone resulting in an action potential.
C. Any combination of local potentials whether in time or location that produces an action potential.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A & B.
38. Axoaxonic synapses
A. Do not result in action potentials in the presynaptic terminal.
B. Are fairly common in the central nervous system.
C. Result when an axon of one neuron synapses with the presynaptic terminal of another axon.
D. Release neuromodulators that influence the release of neurotransmitters.
E. All of the above.
32. The relative refractory period
A. Limits the number of action potentials that can be produced during a certain period of time.
B. Is a period of time when only a strong stimulus can produce another action potential.
C. Prevents another action potential from starting at the same place on the neurolemma.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
39. Substances that can influence the likelihood of an action potential in a postsynaptic cell are
A. Neuromodulators that increase the release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic terminal.
B. Neuromodulators that increase the likelihood of an action potential in the postsynaptic cell.
C. Neuromodulators that decrease the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal.
D. Neuromodulators that decrease the chance of an action potential being generated in the postsynaptic cell.
E. All of the above.
40. Local anesthetics function by
A. Blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels from opening.
B. Blocking the propagation of action potentials along sensory neurons.
C. Blocking the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminals of sensory neurons.
D. Blocking excitatory post synaptic potentials.
E. All of the above.
41. In convergent pathways
A. A larger number of neurons converge with a smaller number of neurons.
B. Action potentials are generated if there are more excitatory postsynaptic potentials than inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.
C. Action potentials are not generated if there are more inhibitory postsynaptic potentials than excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
D. All of the above.
1. The spinal cord extends from
A. The atlas to the coccyx.
B. The axis to the last lumbar vertebrae.
C. The foramen magnum to the second lumbar vertebrae.
D. The occipital condyles to the first sacral vertebrae.
E. From the medulla oblongata to the coccyx.
2. The spinal cord is enlarged in the ____________ region(s).
A. Cervical
B. Lumbosacral
C. Thoracic
D. Coccygeal
E. Both A & B.
3. Enlargement of the spinal cord is
A. At places where spinal nerves exit to supply internal organs.
B. Due to large vertebrae.
C. Because nerves that conduct impulses to and from the limbs enter and exit there.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
4. The cauda equina consists of
A. The cone shaped inferior end of the spinal cord.
B. Many roots of spinal nerves.
C. Denticulate ligaments that attach the spinal cord at the inferior end.
D. All of the above.
E. Both A & B.
5. Choose the correct sequence from the outermost layer to the innermost layer of meninges and spaces surrounding the spinal cord.
1. Pia mater
2. Dura mater
3. Subarachnoid space
4. Subdural space
5. Arachnoid mater
6. Epidural space
A. 6,2,4,5,3,1 B. 2,6,4,5,3,1 C. 1,3,5,4,2,6 D. 2,4,6,5,3,1
6. Epidural anesthesia involves
A. Injection of anesthetics into the space between the dura mater and the periosteum of the vertebral canal.
7. The spinal cord is held in place by
A. Connective tissue extending from the thecal sac, called denticulate ligaments.
B. Connective tissue strand that attaches the thecal sac and the conus medullaris to the first coccygeal vertebrae, called the filum terminale.
8. The clinical procedure that involves insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space inferior to the level of the second lumbar vertebra is
A. Collection of cerebrospinal fluid for the detection of bacteria or blood.
B. Spinal anesthesia (a spinal block).
C. Injection of radiopaque substance to make a radiograph of the spinal cord.
9. Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in
D. The dorsal root ganglia.
10. Axons of sensory neurons synapse with the cell bodies of interneurons in
C. The posterior horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord.
11. The cell bodies of motor neurons are located in
A. The anterior horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord.
B. The lateral horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord.
12. The cell bodies of autonomic neurons are located in
B. The lateral horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord.
13. Spinal nerves contain
A. Sensory neurons.
B. Motor neurons.
C. Autonomic neurons
14. Nerve pathways in the spinal cord that are ascending pathways are located in
A. Dorsal columns, or funiculi.
B. Lateral columns, or funiculi
15. Nerve pathways in the spinal cord that are descending pathways are located in
A. Ventral columns, or funiculi
B. Lateral columns, or funiculi.
16. The reflex arc is
A. The basic functional unit of the nervous system.
B. The smallest and simplest portion of the nervous system capable of receiving a stimulus and producing a response.
C. Composed of a sensory receptor, a sensory neuron, an interneuron, a motor neuron, and an effector organ, in most cases.
17. Choose the correct sequence an action potential would follow in a reflex arc.
1. Sensory neuron
2. Effector organ
3. Sensory receptor
4. Motor neuron
5. Interneuron
D. 3,1,5,4,2
A polysynaptic reflex involves
One or more interneurons between the sensory and motor neurons.
B. Reflexes that have multiple functions such as withdrawal and
19. The type of reflex that does not involve an interneuron is
C. The stretch reflex.
20. The specific type of reflex that would be involved in preventing too much stress from being placed on muscles and muscle attachments would be
D. The Golgi tendon reflex.
21. The reflex response(s) that prevent(s) a person from falling when withdrawing a foot from a painful stimulus would be
B. The crossed extensor reflex
22. _________________ are the receptors involved in the knee-jerk reflex. (Be specific.)
A. Muscle spindles
21. The reflex response(s) that prevent(s) a person from falling when withdrawing a foot from a painful stimulus would be
B. The crossed extensor reflex
23. Sensitivity of muscle spindles is regulated by
C. Gamma motor neurons
22. _________________ are the receptors involved in the knee-jerk reflex. (Be specific.)
A. Muscle spindles
24. A reflex response, such as one would have by touching a hot stove or stepping on a tack, can be accompanied by the sensation of pain because of
C. Divergent neuronal pathways.
23. Sensitivity of muscle spindles is regulated by
C. Gamma motor neurons
25. The connective tissue covering that binds fascicles together into spinal nerves and is continuous with the dura mater surrounding the spinal cord is
A. The epineurium.
24. A reflex response, such as one would have by touching a hot stove or stepping on a tack, can be accompanied by the sensation of pain because of
C. Divergent neuronal pathways.
26. The connective tissue sheath that binds axons together to form nerve fascicles is
B. The perineurium.
25. The connective tissue covering that binds fascicles together into spinal nerves and is continuous with the dura mater surrounding the spinal cord is
A. The epineurium.
27. All 31 pairs of spinal nerves, except the first and the last pair, exit the vertebral column through the
B. Intervertebral foamina
26. The connective tissue sheath that binds axons together to form nerve fascicles is
B. The perineurium.
28. How many spinal nerves come from the cervical region?
E. 16
27. All 31 pairs of spinal nerves, except the first and the last pair, exit the vertebral column through the
B. Intervertebral foamina
29. How many lumbar nerves are there
C. 10
28. How many spinal nerves come from the cervical region?
E. 16
30. A collection of spinal nerves that join together after leaving the spinal cord are referred to as
D. A plexus
29. How many lumbar nerves are there
C. 10
30. A collection of spinal nerves that join together after leaving the spinal cord are referred to as
D. A plexus
31. A dermatome
A. Maps the area of skin supplied by a pair of spinal nerves.
B. Exists for each pair of spinal nerves except C 1.
C. Can be used to locate the site of spinal cord or nerve root damage.
32. A disease causing a loss in the number of acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic membrane is
D. Myasthenia gravis
33. ___________________ is a viral disease affecting the nervous system.
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Shingles
C. Genital herpes
1. The brainstem consists of the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
2. The most inferior part of the brainstem is/are the
A. Medulla oblongata
3. Clusters of gray matter composed mostly of neuron cell bodies found in the central nervous system are
A. Nuclei.
4. In what part of the brainstem do descending nerve fibers cross over from one side to the other?
C. The pyramids on the anterior surface of the medulla.
5. Several nuclei in the___________________ function as reflexes for the regulation of heart rate, blood vessel diameter, respiration, swallowing, vomiting, coughing, and sneezing.
A. Medulla oblongata
6. Scattered throughout the brainstem is a network of loosely packed nuclei known as the ______________________. It functions in relation to cyclic activities such as the sleep-wake cycle
D. Reticular formation
7. One of the major motor pathways of the central nervous system is in the
D. Cerebral peduncles
8. The planning, practicing, and learning of complex movements involves the
A. Frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
B. Lateral lobes of the cerebellum.
9. The part of the brain between the brainstem and the cerebrum is the
C. Diencephalon.
10. The largest part of the diencephalon is the
A. Thalamus.
11. The area of the brain where a large proportion of sensory neurons synapse with neurons that extend to the cerebral cortex is the
C. Thalamus.
12. The area of the brain that has a direct influence on the hypophysis is the
D. Hypothalamus.
13. The part of the brain that most people think of when they think of the brain is the
D. Cerebrum.
14. There are numerous folds on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres that show up as a series of ridges and grooves. The name for the ridges is
B. Gyri.
15. The gray matter of the cerebrum is
A. The cortex
16. The cerebrum is separated into hemispheres by
D. The longitudinal fissure
17. The cerebrum is divided into lobes. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as the fifth lobe?
E. The insula.
18. The white matter of the cerebrum is located in the
A. Medulla of the cerebrum.
19. Which nerve tracts within the cerebral medulla connect one cerebral hemisphere with the other
A. The commissural fibers.
B. The corpus callosum.
20. Which nerve tracts connect areas of the cerebrum with other parts of the brain and spinal cord?
C. Projection fibers.
D. The internal capsule
21. Which nerve tracts connect areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere
E. Association fibers.
22. The limbic system is involved in
A. Emotional interpretation of sensory input and emotions in general.
B. Reproduction.
C. Nutrition.
D. Memory
23. Structurally the limbic system involves
A. The cingulate gyrus.
B. The parahippocampal gyrus.
C. The hippocampus.
D. The amygdala.
24. The folds of the dura mater that are located between the cerebrum and the cerebellum is the
B. Tentorium cerebelli
25. Spaces within the central nervous system are
C. Ventricles.
26. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced
A. By ependymal cells.
B. By cells lining the lateral ventricles.
C. By cells lining the third and fourth ventricles.
D. By cells in the choroid plexuses.
27. The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle by
C. The cerebral aqueduct
28. The first and second ventricles communicate with the third ventricle by means of
A. The interventricular foramina
29. The blood – cerebrospinal fluid barrier is produced by
C. The tight junctions of endothelial cells lining the blood vessels in the choroid plexuses.
30. Even though the brain is only 2% of the weight of the overall body and there is a blood – brain barrier it requires a high percentage of the blood supply. That amounts to
A. 15-20% of the blood supply
31. During embryonic development the part of the brain that becomes the cerebrum is the
A. Prosencephalon.
32. The part of the embryonic brain that becomes the cerebellum is the
D. Metencephalon.
33. The part of the embryonic brain that becomes the medulla oblongata is the
E. Myelencephalon.
34. The cranial nerve(s) that have to do with eye movement is/are
A. Oculomotor.
B. Trochlear.
C. Abducent
35. The cranial nerve(s) that have to do with movement or sensation in the tongue is/are
A. Hypoglossal.
B. Vagus.
C. Glossopharyngeal.
D. Trigeminal.
36. Proprioception (information about the position of the body and its parts) is a function of which of the following cranial nerves?
Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, and Abducent
C. Facial, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus, and Hypoglossal
The sense of hearing and balance is a function of which pair, or pairs, of cranial nerves?
Vestibulocochlear
The cranial nerves that have sensory, motor, and parasympathetic functions are
Facial, Glossopharyngeal, and Vagus.
1. Sensory receptors that provide information about the internal environment are
A. Visceroreceptors.
2. The specific type of sensory receptors that respond to painful mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli are
D. Nociceptors.
3. The simplest and most common type of sensory receptors are
A. Free nerve endings.
4. Which of the following is involved with proprioception?
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Free nerve endings
C. Golgi tendon organs
D. Muscle spindle
E. All of the above
5. The sensory receptors most likely involved in two-point discrimination are
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
6. Which of these types of sensory receptors respond to pain, itch, tickle, and temperature
A. Free nerve endings.
7. Which type of receptors will be stimulated if the skin temperature is above 47o C?
A. Cold receptors
B. Pain receptors
8. Decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus is referred to as
A. Adaptation.
B. Accommodation
9. Receptors that signal changes in sensations, such as pressure, touch, or smell are ____________. For example, information from such receptors allows us to know where parts of our body are as they move, and where they will be, but not where they were a few seconds ago.
A. Rapidly adapting receptors.
B. Phasic recept
10. The major nerve tract(s) involved in the conscious perception of external stimuli is/are the
A. Anterolateral system.
B. Dorsal column/ medial lemniscal system.
Which of the following is a component of the anterolateral system?
The spinothalamic tract.
B. The spinoreticular tract.
C. The spinomesencephalic tract.
D. All of the above.
Secondary neurons synapse with tertiary neurons of the spinothalamic tract in the
Thalamus.
If the spinothalamic tract on the left side of the spinal cord is severed
. Pain sensations below the damaged area on the right side of the body are eliminated.
B. Temperature sensations on the right side of the body inferior to the damaged area are lost.
C. Light pressure, tickle, and itch sensations can no longer be detected below the damaged area on the right side of the body
Nerve fibers of the dorsal column/medial lemniscal system
Carry the sensations of two-point discrimination, proprioception, pressure, and vibration.
B. Are divided into fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus in the spinal cord.
C. Decussate in the medulla oblongata.
D. Include secondary neurons from the nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus that synapse in the thalamus.
Tertiary neurons of the anterolateral and dorsal column/medial lemniscal systems
Project to the somatic sensory cortex.
The trigeminothalamic tract
Joins the spinothalamic tract in the brainstem.
B. Carries the same type of sensory information as the spinothalamic tracts and dorsal column/medial lemniscal system.
C. Carries sensory information from the face, nasal cavity, and oral cavity.
D. Has secondary neurons that decussate in the brain stem.
The anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts differ from the anterolateral and dorsal column/medial lemniscal sytems in that
They transmit proprioceptive information from the same side of the body as the cerebellar hemisphere to which they project.
B. They carry proprioceptive information to the cerebellum rather than to the sensory cortex of the cerebrum.
C. They carry little information from the upper limbs to the cerebellum.
D. Some fibers in the anterior spinocerebellar tracts decussate twice.
The nerve tract most likely to be involved in a reflex turning the head and eyes towards the point of contact on the skin is
The spinotectal tract
General sensory input for things such as pain, pressure, and temperature are ultimately carried to the
Primary somatic sensory cortex.
B. General sensory area.
C. Postcentral gyrus
Which of the following areas of the body uses the largest area of the somatic sensory cortex for processing sensory information
Head
Cutaneous sensations, although integrated within the cerebrum, are perceived as though they were on the surface of the body.” This process is called
Projection.
Referred pain in the superior right shoulder most likely indicates
A damaged or inflamed liver or gall bladder
Initiation of voluntary movements depend on
The primary motor area.
B. The premotor area.
C. The somatic sensory cortex.
D. All of the above.
Which of the following pathways are descending pathways, carrying nerve impulses away from the brain?
The corticospinal tract.
Which nerve tract stimulates muscles that move the head?
The corticobulbar tract.
Which motor pathway is a direct pathway and part of the pyramidal system?
The corticospinal tract.
Which motor pathway is an indirect pathway and part of the extrapyramidal system
The rubrospinal tract.
B. The tectospinal tract
A spinal cord lesion that results in a hemisection of the spinal cord results in
Contralateral loss of temperature sensations.
B. Ipsilateral loss of proprioception.
C. Ipsilateral loss of upper motor control.
D. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
The part of the cerebellum that helps coordinate eye movement and control balance is the
Flocculonodular node.
B. Vestibulocerebellum
. Fine motor coordination of simple movements using the comparator function of the spinocerebellum is accomplished by a sequence of events. Place the following events in the correct sequence for the cerebellar comparator function to occur.
1. Action potentials from proprioceptors ascend to the spinocerebellum.
2. Action potentials go from the motor cortex to initiate voluntary movements and to the cerebellum to notify of intended movement.
3. Action potentials from the cerebellum go to the motor cortex and spinal cord.
C. 2,1,3
The brainstem
Consists of ascending and descending pathways.
B. Has nuclei and connections that form the reticular activating system.
C. Injuries are often fatal because of the important reflexes it contains.
D. Contains the nuclei associated with cranial nerves II-XII.
all of the above
The main connection between the left and right cerebral hemispheres is the
Corpus callosum
Which of the following are associated mostly with the right cerebral hemisphere in most people?
Artistic ability.
B. Recognition of faces and musical ability.
. The type of wave pattern one gets from an electroencephalogram when the subject is in deep sleep is/a
Delta waves.
Memory that lasts for long enough to remember information for an exam is
Long term memory.
B. Explicit memory.
C. Declarative memory.
D. All of the above
Rank the following types of memory in order from the shortest retention to the longest retention.
1. Declarative memory
2. Implicit memory.
3. Short term memory
4. Sensory memory
D. 4,3,1,2
Long term memory involves
Long-term potentiation of neurons.
B. Increase in the neurotransmitter, glutamate and glutamate receptors.
C. Calcium influx into the postsynaptic cell.
D. Stimulation of the synthesis of specific proteins by Calmodulin.
The limbic system is involved in the control of
Emotions, mood, and sensations such as pain or pleasure
Levels of organization
chemical
organelle
cellular
tissue
organ
organ system
organism
Organ systems of the human body
respiratory
urinary
nervous
muscular
reproductive
skeletal
lymphatic
integumentary
digestive
endocrine
cardiovascular
Reproductive system is
responsible for the maintenance of the species. Sex cells, ovaries, uterine tube, uterus
lymphatic system
cleanses and returns tissue fluid to the cardiovascular system & assists the body in protecting itself from foreign organisms
urinary system
rids the body of wast products; its consists of kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra
integumentary system
provides the protective covering of the body and is mostly formed by the skin
nervous system
allows us to interact and interpret our enivronment. The bran, spinal cord, PNS
digestive system is
responsible for providing nutrition to the tissues. mouth, salivary glands, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver
muscular system
moves the body.
endocrine system
individual organs produce hormones. hypothalmus, pituitary, thyroid, pancreas, gonads, endocrine organs
respiratory system
takes o2 to the body & releases carbon dixiode. Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, lungs
cardiovascular system is
primarly transport. heart & blood vessels
skeletal system
provides framework for movement & mechanism for protecting the body.
Directional terms used in humans (10)
Superior
inferior
medial
lateral
superficial
deep
ventral (anterior)
dorsal (posterior)
proximal
distal
9 regions of the abdoman
right hypochondriac
left hypochondriac
epigastric
right lumbar
left lumbar
umbilical
hypogastric
right iliac
left iliac
four quadrants of abdoman
right upper
left - upper
right - lower
left - lower
regions of the body
cephalic (6)
cervical (1 - kneck)
trunk (5)
upper extremity (7)
lower extremity (6)
what is light microscopy
invloves the use of visible light & glass lenses to illuminate, magnify, & observe a speciman.
how does light microscopy differ from electron microscopy?
electron details much more detal. electron pass through or bounce of material
what is field of view
the circle we see when looking through ocular lens
depth of field is
the range of the material that is in foucs under a particular magnification.
working distance is
the distance between the objective lens and the coverslip
How to cleanse lenses of miscroscope
lens cleaning fluid on lens paper. one circular pass on lens with each clean piece
when do we use immersion oil
when our miscroscope have oil immersion lenses
what do we call the study of cells?
cytology
phospholipid bilayer is?

What is it composed of?
part of the plasma membrane (gatekeeper)

proteins, cholestrol, & other molecules.
what does the phospholipied bilayer do?
it's selective of what it allows into the cell
peripheral proteins

integral proteins
are found on the inner or outer surface of the membrane.

whereas integral proteins are those passing into the membrane.
cystol is
the fluid in which the organelles are suspended
what makes up the cytoskeleton
small filaments & tubules
what is the difference betwen lysosomes vesicles & perxisomes vesicles?
lysomes digest material and peroxisomes use enzymes to convert potentailly toxic hydrogen perioxide to water & o2.
what fluid surrounds the cells?
extracellular fluid
what is cytokinesis
the splitting of cells cytoplasm in two parts
mitochondria function
ATP production, fatty acid oxidation

to convert food molecules into ATp
ribosome function (smallest)
produce proteins
rough endoplasmic reticulum function
protein production for export

is to produce proteins for transport & use outside the cell
smooth ER function
lipid & steroid synthesis, detoxification

produces lipid compounds & detox material
golgi apparatus function
assembly of macromoliecules, transport from cell for secretion

receives material from ER & other parts of cytoplasm & serves as assembly & packaging organelle
nucleus function
house genetic material & to control the various task of the cell
lysomes
digestion of material
peroxisome
conversion of hydrogen perioxide to h2o & o2
The cell cycle
interphase
mitosis
cytokinesis
interphase is
the time when a cell undergoes growth & duplication of DNA
what are the 3 seperate phases of interpahse?
G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase

(G stands for gap)
(S stands for synthesis)
in G1 phase of interphase
cells are growing in size & producing organelles
in S phase of interphase
DNA of the cell is duplicated
in G2 phase of interpahse
the cell continues to grow and prepares for the process of mitosis.
G0 phase of interpahse
cells don't undergo further division; like muscle & brain cells.
Mitosis is
a continuos event; nuclear division (invloves division of genetic information to two indentical nuclei.
Mitosis 4 phases are
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
peroxisome
conversion of hydrogen perioxide to h2o & o2
The cell cycle
interphase
mitosis
cytokinesis
interphase is
the time when a cell undergoes growth & duplication of DNA
what are the 3 seperate phases of interpahse?
G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase

(G stands for gap)
(S stands for synthesis)
in G1 phase of interphase
cells are growing in size & producing organelles
in S phase of interphase
DNA of the cell is duplicated
in G2 phase of interpahse
the cell continues to grow and prepares for the process of mitosis.
G0 phase of interpahse
cells don't undergo further division; like muscle & brain cells.
Mitosis is
a continous event; nuclear division (invloves division of genetic information to two indentical nuclei.
Mitosis 4 phases are
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
prophase of mitotic
nuclear material condenses
metaphase of mitotic
chromosomes align between the poles of the cell
anaphase of mitotic
chromatids seperate at the centomere, and each chromatid is known as daughter cell
telophase of mitotic
daughter chromosomes begin to unwind into chromatin, the nucleolus reappears, & the nuclear envelope begins to re-form.
solvent
water; the liquid into which material dissolves
solute
the material that becomes dissolved in solvent (water)
solution
combination of solute & solvent (water)
isotonic
if solutions have same concentration of solutes
what is hemolysis
when water moves into a cell at a rapid rate; cell becomes inflated & sometimes burst
what is crenation
when red blood cells lose water; wrinkled because the loss of water
osmosis
particular kind of diffusion. movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from regions of higher water concentration to lower water concentration.
study of tissues is
histology
four main tissue types
epithelial tissue
connective tissue
muscular tissue
nervous tissue
what is a basement membrane
non-cellular adheisve layer where epithelial tissue adheres to underlying layers
basic cell layers
simple
pseudostratified
stratified
simple cell layer
cells in single layer
pseudostratified cell layer
cells in one layer, though appearing to be in many layers
stratified cell layer
cells stacked in more than one layer
different cell shapes (types)
squamous
cubodial
columnar
squamous cell type
flattened
what is transitional epithelium
stretching capabilities

lines the ureter, bladder, & urethra. Allows these organs to expand as urine collects within them.
what is desomes
where cells are held together; fibers extend into both cells & hold them together.
what are tight junctions
hold cells even more closely than desomes. 2 cells are fused allowing nothing to pass through them.
name the 3 types of muscle types (tissue)
skeletal
cardiac
smooth
connective tissue's
loose
dense
dense elastic
adipose
reticular
bone marrow
cartilage
bone
vascular
hyaline cartilage
most common cartilage; apex of nose, convering ends of long bones, between ribs & sternum, respiratory passage.
fibrocartilage is
found in areas where more stress is places on the cartilage; intervertebral discs, symphysis pubis, menisci knee;

more collagenous fibers than in hyaline
elastic cartilage
contains elastic fibers, gives tissue flexible nature.

external ear, epiglottis (larynx)
hypodermis is
a structure anchoring the integument to underlying bone or muscle; significant amount of adipose tissue
dermis consists primarly of
collagenous fibers; contains accessory & structures; responsible for structural ingegrity
dermis two major regions (layers)
reticular layer - thickest part
papillary layer - found between reticular & epidermis
5 layers of epidermis
stratum basale
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum
in stratum basale
cells divide by mitosis & some of the newly formed cells become the cells of the more superficial s
in stratum spinosum
keratin fibers & lamellar bodies accumulate
in stratum granulosum
keraton granules accumulate & hard protein envelope form beneath plasma membrane
in stratum lucidum
cells dead & contain dispersed keratin
stratum cornem
completely keratized; surrounded by lipids
terms of the nail
cuticle
free edge
nail body
hyponychium
lunula
nail bed
nail root
nail fold
nail grove
free edge of nail
part that we clip
eponychium
cuticle
nail root is
underneath cuticle; generates nail body
nail body is
the nail itself
hyponychium is (nail)
the region under free edge of nail
lunula is (nail)
white crescent at the base of nail.
5 functions of skeletal system
supporting body
protecting soft tissues
providing structure for movement
storing minerals
forming blood cells
axial skeletal system consist of
skull
hyoid bone
vertebral column
ribs
sternum
appendicular skeletal system consist of
all that is not in axial
4 bone shape
long bones
short bones
flat bones
irregular bones
what makes up bone tissue
organic
inorganic
organic matter is composed
mostly of cells & collagenous fibers & makes up about 35% of the bone by weight.
inorganic matter makes up
65% of the bone & mostly consists of hydroxyaptite (salt consisting of calcium phosphate & calcium carbonate)
define hydroxyaptite
salt consisting of calcium phosphate & calcium carbonate
difference between red & yellow bone marrow
red is blood cell-forming

yellow contians adipose
define diaphysis
shaft of the long bone
define epiphyses
proximal & distal ends of long bones
growth plate (epiphyseal) is
individuals who are growing in height.
epiphyseal line is
between diaphysis & epipysis in older aldults; considered a fusion plate, where the growing regions of the bone united. site of the growth plate (epiphyseal)
periosteum is
a sheath on the outer surface of the bone; dense connective tissue sheath
tendons
attach muscles to bone at the periosteum and this attachement is stregthened by perforating (sharpey's) fibers that penetrate into compact bone
ligaments
are straps of connective tissue that connect one bone to another, and secured to bone by periosteum.
Projections from bone

process
projection from the surface of the bone
Projections from bone

tubercle
relatively small bump on a bone
Projections from bone

tuberosity
a relatively larger bump on a bone
Projections from bone

trochanter
a large bump (on femur)
Projections from bone

ramus
a branch
Projections from bone

spine
a short, sharp projection
Projections from bone

head
projection that articulates with another bone
Projections from bone

condyle
irregular, smooth surface that articulates with another bone
Projections from bone

epicondyle
a bump on a condyle
Projections from bone

crest
an elevated ridge of bone
Projections from bone

line
elevation smaller than a crest
Projections from bone

facet
a smooth, flat face
depressions or cavities in bone

foramen
a shallow hole
depressions or cavities in bone

sinus
a cavity in a bone
depressions or cavities in bone

meatus or canal
a deep hole
depressions or cavities in bone

fossa
a shallow surface depression in a bone
depressions or cavities in bone

notch
a deep cutout in a bone
depressions or cavities in bone

grove or sulcus
elongated depression
depressions or cavities in bone

fissure
a long, deep cleft in a bone
structures of osteons
haversian (central) canal
lacunae
osteocytes
canaliculi
lamellae
haversian (central) canal
hole in the middle; which houses blood vessels & nerves in dense bone tissue
lacunae
dark spots around the central canal
osteocytes
bone cells that occupy the space in lacunae
canaliculi
thin tubes that connect lacunae; the role of canaliculi is to provide a passageway through dense bone material
lamellae
layers of dense mineral salts that form concentric rings between the lacunae in the osteon
3 bone cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
osteoblast orginate from
stem cells; they produce new bone & become osteocytes
ostocytes are
mature bone cell; they sense the stress placed on bone and add more bone material if needed. they also become activated in fractures
osteoclasts are
involved in bone reabsorption; they increase size of marrow cavity as person grows. formed from the fusion of cells, such as macrophages. each cell as multiple nuclei
osteogenic progenitor cells
stems where osteoblasts orginate from
another name for heel bone
calcaneus
tarsal bones
talus
calcaneus
navicular
cuneiform (first/medial, second/intermediate, third/lateral)
cuboid
carpal bones (say loudly to patty time to come home)
scaphoid
lunate
triquetrum
pisiform
trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate
pelvic gridle consist of
coxal (innominate) bone
symphysis pubis
subpubic angle
coxal bones are the fusion of (3) bones
ilium
ischium
pubis
pectoral gridle are
scapulae
clavicles
how many bones in phalanges
14; each finger has 3 (proximal, middle, distal. Thumb one proximal & one distal
hallux
big toe
pollex
thumb
difference between male& female pelvic gridle
female: greater sciatic notch than males (males less than 90*)
subpubic angle is greather than 90*
4 spinal curvatures
cervical curvature
thoracic curvature
lumbar curvature
sacral(pelvic) curvature
how many ribs do we have
12 pairs (24)
basic structure of vertebra
vetebral foramen
body
pedicles (vertebral/neural arch)
laminae
trasverse process
spinous process
superior articular process
superior articular facet
inferior articular process
inferior articular facet
total # of vertebra?
how many of each type?
33
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4 coccal
atlas vertebra
1st cervical vertebra (c1) only cervical vertebra without body.
carries weight of head
axis vertebra
2nd cervical vertebra and has dens/odontoid wich runs superiorly through the atlas; dens also allow atlas to rotate on axis
vertebra prominens
C7; spinous process that projects sharply in a posterior direction & can be felt as a bump at the base of neck
vertebrosternal ribs are
true ribs; fist 7 seven ribs. Attach to sternum by its own cartilage.
vertebrochondral ribs
8-12 ribs
attach to sternum not by their own cartillage therefore called false ribs; 8-10 attach to 7 cartillage.
another name for floating ribs
vertebral ribs;
ribs 11&12 don't attach to sternum at all
bones that make up orbits
frontal bone
sphenoid bone
ethmoid bone
zygomatic bone
maxilla
lacrimal bones
what are the 3 cranial fossa
anterior cranial fossa
middle cranial fossae
posterior cranial fossae
where do we find cribiform plate?
small horizontal plate of bone with numerous holes lateral to the crista galli
3 types of joints
fibrous joints
cartilaginous joints
synovial joints
sella turcica belongs to what bone?
sphenoid bone
3 types of fibrous joints
suture
gomphosis
syndesmosis
2 types of cartilagious joints
synchondrosis
symphysis
6 synovial joints
gliding
hings
pivot
condyloid
saddle
ball-and-socket
example of suture joints
frontal & parietal bone
example of gomphosis
teeth & mandible
example of syndesmosis
distal tibia & fibula
example of synchondrosis
epiphseal plate, humeral head & shaft, costal cartilage, ribs & sternum
example of syphysis
joint between two vertebral body
smyphisis pubis
example of gliding
between carpal bones
example of hinge
humerus & ulna
example of pivot
atlas & axis
radius & ulna
example of condyloid (ellipsod) joint
radius & scaphoid
atlas & occipital
example of saddle
trapezium & 1st metacarpal
example of ball-n-socket
acetablum & femur
what are fontanels and
why are we born with them?
what happens as we age
fontals soft spots on infants skull; fit through birth canal, after birth allow for further expansion of skull.
the four sets of frontals fuse
basic structure of synovial joint
joint capsule - outer part
fibrous capsule - makes up joint capsule
inner synovial membrane - secretes synovial fluid that reduces friction
synovial cavity - space inside joint
articular cartilage - end of bone (hyaline cartilage)
what structure secretes synovial fluid?
syovial membrane
5 specific joints of the body
temporomandibular
shoulder joint
elbow joint
hip joint
knee joint
what joint is the temporomandibular?
only diarthrotic joint of the skull; the articular disk is a pad of fibrocartilage that provides a cushion between mandibular condyle & temporal bone
what joint is seen in the shoulder joint
glenohumeral (humeroscapular) joint because glenoid fossa articulates with head of humerus
what joint is seen in the elbow (humeroulnar)?
both hinge & pivot
what joint is seen in the hip?
known as acetabulofemoral joint
what joint is seen in the knee
tibiofemoral joint (knee joint) is the larges most complex joint of the body.
flexion is
a decrease in the joint angle from anatomic position
extension is
a return to anatomic position of part of the body that was flexed
muscle that assist with the prime mover are?
synergists
movements that oppose muscles are
antagonists
muscle functional characteristics
contractility - when stimulated they can make (eat, walk, talking, breathing)
extensibility - stretched when opposing muscles contract
elasticity - recoil when stretched
excitability - because they respond to stimuli
what neurotransmitter is used in the neuromuscular junction
acetylcholine
what is the role of calcium in contraction
change thin filament into an activated state by binding to troponin. Actin & myofilaments join together
twitch
muscle fiber stimulated with single, quick electrical pulse
rapid, repeated stimuli to muscle the series of contractions are?
incomplete tetanus
if frequency of stimuli increases, contractions fuse into smooth contraction know as
complete tetanus
maximal stimulus
point where all muscle fibers are forcefully contracting
Anatomy
The scientific discipline that investigates the bodies structure is
Histology
2. The study of the structure of tissues is called
E. Embryology
3. The study of the structural changes that occur between conception and the eighth week of development is
A. Cytology
4. The study of the structural features of cells is called
D. Physiology
5. The scientific investigation of the processes, or functions, of living organisms is
A. Pathology
6. The medical science having to do with the causes and symptoms of disease is
C. Dynamic Spatial Reconstruction (DSR)
8. The procedure that uses about 30 x-ray tubes to simultaneously produce a 3-dimensional image is a
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
9. Directing radio waves at a person’s body while they are surrounded by a magnetic field and then using a computer to produce an image by analyzing the differences in time it takes the hydrogen atoms to realign once the radio waves are turned off is called
A. Radiograph.
10. Directing x-rays through body tissues to expose a photographic film produces a
C. Computed tomographic scan. (CT Scan.)
11. Directing low intensity x-rays in a 360 degree arc around the human body that produces images that can be fed into a computer and produce an image of that particular section of the body is called a
B. Sonogram.
12. High frequency sound waves transmitted and received by a transmitter-receiver placed over selected locations of the body produce an image of body tissues with the help of a computer called a
D. Metabolism
13. The characteristic of life that represents all of the chemical reactions going on inside an organism is
14. The major regulatory system that detects sensations, controls movement, physiological processes, and intellectual function is the
nervous system
A. Endocrine system.
15. The major regulatory system that influences metabolism, growth, reproduction, as well as such things as glucose metabolism and regulation of calcium levels, and blood pressure, and that’s not all
C. Integumentary system.
16. Finger nails, toe nails, sweat glands, and hair are part of
Tendons areis not part of the skeletal system
tendons are not part of the skeletal system?
A. 18. Which organ system has the most to do with removal of foreign substances from the blood and combating infectious diseases?
Lymphatic system
19. Homeostasis is maintained by
negative feedback
mechanism for maintaining conditions within the normal range
20. Positive feedback is involved in
A. Delivery of blood to cardiac muscle following extreme blood loss.
B. Increase in the strength of uterine contractions during birth.
21. Anatomic position refers to
A. A person standing erect with face directed forward.
B. A person standing erect with arms hanging to the sides.
C. A person standing erect with palms of the hands facing forward.
22. A person lying face upward is correctly described as being in the _________ position.
Supine
The anatomical antonym of cephalic is
caudal
24. The anatomical term that best describes the general location of an anatomical part or feature on the bodies surface is
Superficial
25. The ventral surface of the human body is
anterior
26. The lower end of the vertebral column is correctly referred to using anatomical terminology as
Inferior or caudal
27. The brachial is more _________________ to the trunk than the manual.
proximal
28. The anatomical term for the back of the neck is
nuchal
29. The anatomical term for the chin is
mental
30. The anatomical term for the thigh is
femoral
31. The anatomical term for the heel is
calcaneal
32. The anatomical term for the top side of the foot is
dorsum
33. The anatomical term for the calf of the leg is
sural
34. The anatomical term for the armpit is
axillary
35. Acute appendicitis is usually associated with pain in the
D. Right lower quadrant
36. A median plane
A. Is a sagittal plane.
B. Divides the human body into right and left halves at the midline
37. A coronal plane
A. Is a frontal plane.
B. Divides the human body into anterior and posterior parts
38. An organ cut at right angles to its long axis is a
A. Cross section.
B. Transverse section
39. The structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity is the
C. Diaphragm
40. A visceral membrane is a
A. Serous membrane
B. Membrane that covers an organ of the body
41. The serous membrane lining the outside surface of the heart is the
A. Visceral pericardium
42. The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the
D. Parietal peritoneum
43. Inflammation of the serous membranes surrounding the heart is called
C. Pericarditis
stomach is not a retroperitoneal organ
stomach is not a retroperitoneal organ
What membranes anchor organs in the abdominal cavity to the body wall and provide a passageway for nerves and blood vessels to enter those organs
A. Mesenteries
1. Matter is
C. Anything that has mass and takes up space.
D. Something that has weight when under the influence of the field of gravity
The simplest type of matter with unique properties is
B. An element
3. The smallest particle of an element that has the chemical characteristics of that element is
A. An atom
4. The nucleus of an atom contains
A. Neutrons.
B. Protons
5. __________________ are in constant orbit around the nucleus
C. Electrons
6. The number of protons in each atom is equal to the ______________________.
A. Atomic number.
B. Number of electrons
7. The atomic mass of an element is equal to the number of _______________________ in an atom of that element.
A. Protons and neutrons
8. Atoms that have the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons are called
C. Isotopes
9. The number of negatively charged particles, called ___________________, in an atom is often equal to the number of positively charged subatomic particles.
C. Electrons
10. If the number of protons is different than the number of electrons in atoms it results in positively or negatively charged atoms called
A. Ions
11. Positively charged atoms or molecules are called
D. Cations
12. Negatively charged atoms or molecules are called
C. Anions
13. One mole of any substance
A. Is 6.022 x 1023 number of atoms.
B. Has the same number of atoms as a mole of any other substance.
C. Has a molar mass equal to the atomic mass of the substance expressed in grams
14. To prepare a one molar solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) one would
C. Dissolve 58.44 grams of NaCl in a liter of distilled, or deionized water.
D. Dissolve 6.022 x 1023 atoms of Na and Cl in a liter of deionized water
15. Atoms or molecules that bond to each other because of their opposite electrical charge exhibit
B. Ionic bonding
16. When atoms share one or more pairs of electrons it results in
C. Covalent bonding
17. When electrons are unequally shared between two atoms it results in
D. Polar covalent bonding
18. Two or more atoms of the same element, or different elements, that combine to form an independent functional unit are
A. Molecules
19. _______________________ are substances that are composed of atoms of two or more different elements that are chemically combined.
B. Compounds
21. Which of the following is an example of weak electrostatic interactions between molecules?
D. Hydrogen bonds
22. A “Polar Molecule” is
C. A molecule that has positive charged regions in one area and negatively charged regions in another making it electrically asymmetric
23. The ability of substances to dissolve in another, such as salt or sugar in water, involves
A. Dissociation.
B. Solubility
24. Oil doesn’t dissolve in water because it is a
A. Non-polar substance
25. Cations and anions dissociate in water because
A. They are attracted by the opposite charges on different parts of the water molecules.
B. They are not covalently bonded together.
C. They are compounds that dissociate easily.
D. All of the above. (answer)
26. The conduction of electric current produced by the heart can be measured on the surface of the body and displayed as an electrocardiogram. This is possible because of
A. Cations that dissociate in water.
B. Anions that dissociate in water.
C. Electrolytes in the body fluids between the heart and the electrodes
27. Chemical reactions in which two or more reactants combine to form a new larger product are
A. Synthesis reactions
28. Decomposition reactions associated with metabolism are called
B. Catabolism.
29. Chemical reactions that can proceed from reactants to product and from product to reactant are
A. Reversible reactions
30. In oxidation-reduction reactions the loss of an electron by an atom is
B. Oxidatio
31. Energy that is in the process of performing work is
B. Kinetic energy
E. The minimum amount of energy required to start a chemical reaction is
H. Activation energy
32. Substances that lower the activation energy required for a reaction to take place are
A. Catalysts.
B. Enzymes
33. Blood is a
A. Solution.
B. Suspension.
C. Colloid.
34. A base
A. Is a proton acceptor.
B. Has a pH above 7
35. The normal pH range for human blood is
C. 7.35-7.45
36. The pH is neutral when the pH is #
7
37. If we change the pH of a solution from pH 5 to pH 8 it means that the solution was _____________ and now is ______________ and has a _____________ hydrogen ions than it did when it was pH 5
B. Acidic; basic; 1000 times less
38. Salt is
a compound consisting of a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH-.
B. Is formed by an interaction of an acid with a base in which the H+ of the acid is replaced by the positive ions of the base.
39. Buffers are
A. Resist changes in the pH of a solution when either acids or bases are added.
B. Is a conjugate acid- base pair in which the acid component and the base component occur in similar concentrations.
The study of substances that contain carbon is called _________________.
C. Organic Chemistry.
glycogen is a carbohydrate
Glycogen is a
steroid are a lipid
Steroid are a lipid
polupetides are proteins
Polypeptides are proteins
In proteins, an alpha helix would be an example of
Secondary structure
In proteins, a pleated sheet would be an example of
Secondary structure.
When two or more protein molecules associate to form a functional unit as they do with the hemoglobin molecule it is an example of
Quaternary structure
Molecules made from amino acids and have names that end with “ase” are
Enzymes
Uracil is
A pyrimidine base .
Found in ribonucleic acid
Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA, but not in DNA
Uracil
The energy currency of cells is
Adenosine triphosphate
1. The basic structural and functional unit of any organism is
A. The cell
2. Structures within cells that are specialized for specific functions are called
C. Organelles
3. A major factor in the fluid nature of the plasma membrane is
C. Cholesterol
4. The ability of the cells to recognize whether a cell is one that belongs, a self-cell, or is a foreign cell, such as a bacteria, is largely because of
A. Extrinsic proteins.
B. Glycoproteins
C. The Glycocalyx
5. Components of the cell membrane that attach cells to each other are
B. Cadherins
6. ______________________ facilitate the movement of ions from one side of the plasma membrane to the other
A. Non-gated ion channels
B. Ligand gated ion channels
C. Voltage gated ion channels
D. Carrier proteins
7. Which of the following is a way molecules and ions move across the plasma membrane
A. Lipid soluble molecules like oxygen, carbon dioxide, and steroids can move directly through the plasma membrane.
B. Channel proteins facilitate ions such as sodium, potassium, and chloride to move across the plasma membrane.
C. Vesicles can move molecules, small pieces of matter or even whole cells across the plasma membrane
8. Movement of solutes in a fluid from an area of higher concentration to areas of lesser concentration until equilibrium is established is best defined as
diffusion
9. The movement of substances across the plasma membrane down their concentration gradient without the expenditure of energy, but with the help of carrier proteins and/or channel proteins is called
B. Mediated transport
10. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of lesser solute concentration to an area of greater solute concentration is known as
osmosis
11. The movement of substances across the plasma membrane against their concentration gradient requiring energy input from adenosine triphosphate is
active transport
12. The engulfing of liquid substances by a cell is correctly referred to as
B. Endocytosis.
C. Pinocytosis
13. The engulfing of particulate matter by cells is called
A. Phagocytosis.
B. Endocytosis.
14. Cellular secretions that are exported from the cell from vesicles that merge with the plasma membrane are undergoing
D. Exocytosis
15. Crenation will occur if a cell is placed in
C. A hypertonic solution
16. The structure of the cell and the position of the organelles is maintained by
E. The cytoskeleton
17. Cells and cellular organelles are enclosed within
A. Membranes.
18. The cytoskeleton is composed of
A. Intermediate filaments.
B. Microtubules composed primarily of tubulin.
C. MIcrofilaments made of actin.
19. ________________________ in the nucleus is responsible for the regulation of protein synthesis.
D. Deoxyribonucleic acid
20. ______________________ are found within the nucleus and are responsible for the assembly of small and large ribosomal subunits
E. Nucleoli
21. __________________ are responsible for the actual assembly of amino acids into proteins, or protein synthesis
E. Ribosomes
22. Proteins that are primarily used within the cell are produced by ______________.
C. Free ribosomes
23. Proteins that are exported from the cell are produced by __________________.
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
25. ______________ are responsible for lipid synthesis
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
26. Cells in the salivary glands and pancreas that secrete large amounts of proteins have a highly developed
Golgi apparatus
27. Cells that are active in detoxification, such as liver and kidney cells have many
B. Peroxisomes
28. The major site of adenosine triphosphate (energy currency) production is the
A. Mitochondrion
ATP production involves
A. Glycolysis.
B. Anaerobic respiration.
C. Aerobic respiration.
D. The citric acid cycle
30. Microtubules made of the protein tubulin can be found in
A. The cytoskeleton.
B. Spindle fibers.
C. Flagella.
D. Cilia
32. Polyribosomes are
B. A cluster of ribosomes attached to the same messenger RNA molecule to produce large quantities of the same protein
33. In the cell life cycle mitosis refers to
B. The division of the nucleus into two nuclei
34. Cells that are not going to replicate for an indefinite period, if ever again, enter
A. The G0 phase
35. Cancer cells, damaged cells, virus infected cells, and extra cells, are removed from the body by
D. Apoptosis
36. Where else in the cell can deoxyribonucleic acid be found other than in the nucleus?
C. Mitochondria
37. Meiosis differs from mitosis by
A. Reducing the number of chromosomes by half.
B. Having two subsequent cell divisions instead of one.
C. Resulting in a large amount of genetic variation.
D. Spending more time in Prophase I.
38. _______________ is a genetic disorder resulting from the inability to transport chloride ions across the plasma membrane.
D. Cystic fibrosis
39. ______________ is a genetic disorder associated with the nondisjunction of chromosomes during meiosis
A. Down’s syndrome.
B. Klineflter’s syndrome
C. Turner’s syndrome
1. The scientific discipline that studies the functions of the body is
D. Physiology
2. The specific study of tissues is
B. Histology.
3. The study of the structure of the body is
Anatomy
4. The medical science that studies the causes and symptoms of disease is
B. Pathology
5. Choose the numerical sequence that organizes the following levels of organization from the simplest level to the most complex level.
1. Tissue level
2. Organism level
3. Cellular level
4. Organ system level
5. Chemical level
6. Organ level

A. 3,1,5,4,6,2 B. 5,3,1,6,4,2 C. 5,1,3,6,4,2 D. 2,4,6,1,3,5
6. The term that best represents all of the chemical reactions going on inside an organism is
D. Metabolism.
7. The organ system that has the most influence on metabolism, growth, and reproduction is the
A. Endocrine system.
8. Which organ system has the most to do with the removal of foreign substances from the blood and combating infectious diseases
D. The lymphatic system.
9. Correct anatomic position involves
A. A person standing erect with face forward, and arms hanging by the sides with palms of the hands facing forward.
10. Directing low intensity x-rays in a 360 degree arc around the body that produces images that when analyzed by use of a computer produces an image of that corss section of the body is called
A. A computed tomographic scan (a CT scan)
11. Homeostasis is
A. The maintenance of body processes within normal range.
B. Maintained by negative feedback.
C. Negated by positive feedback.
D. All of the above.
12. The anatomical term for the hollow behind the knee is
D. Popliteal.
13. Which of the following terms refers to the neck?
A. Cervical
B. Nuchal
14. A coronal plane through the body
A. Divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
B. Is the same as the frontal plane.
15. Organs of the body are enclosed in
A. Visceral serous membranes.
16. The atomic number of an element is equal to
A. The number of protons in an atom of that element.
17. The atomic mass of an element is equal to
A. The number of protons in an atom of that element.
B. The number of neutrons in an atom of that element.
E. Both A & B.
18. Isotopes are atoms that have
C. A different number of neutrons.
19. Ions are
A. Positively charged atoms.
B. Positively charged molecules.
C. Negatively charged atoms.
D. Negatively charged Molecules.
E. All of the above.
20. Cations are
A. Positively charged atoms.
B. Positively charged molecules.
E. Both A & B.
21. Two or more atoms of the same element, or different elements, that combine to form independent functional units are
C. Molecules.
22. When two or more atoms of different elements chemically combine they form
B. Compounds.
23. Polar molecules are
B. Molecules that have an unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms resulting in a slight positive charge on one side and a negative charge on the other side.
24. Electrolytes
A. Are cations.
B. Are anions.
C. Conduct electricity.
D. Make electrocardiograms and electroencephalograms possible by merely placing electrodes in the appropriate places on the surface of the body.
E. All of the above.
25. In oxidation-reduction reactions
A. The atom that loses an electron is oxidized.
B. The atom that gains an electron is reduced.
E. Both A & B.
26. Enzymes are
A. Catalysts.
B. Usually proteins with names ending with “ase.”
C. Lower the activation energy required for a reaction to take place.
D. All of the above.
27. Buffers
A. Conjugate acid-base pairs in which the acid component and the base component occur in similar concentrations.
B. Resist changes in the pH of the solution when either acids of bases are added to the solution.
C. Are important in maintaining the pH of certain body fluids, such as blood..
D. All of the above.
28. The pH of a solution
A. Is based on the hydrogen ion concentration of that solution.
B. Is expressed using a scale from one to fourteen.
C. Changes ten-fold for each pH unit.
D. Is acidic below pH 7.
E. All of the above.
29. All of the following are carbohydrates except
D. Polypeptides.
30. Secondary structure in proteins is exemplified by
A. Pleated sheets.
B. Alpha helices.
E. Both A & B.
31. Ribonucleic acid differs from deoxyribonucleic acid in that
A. It contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose sugar.
B. Instead of thymine the nitrogenous base, uracil, pairs with adenine.
E. Both A & B.
32. Adenosine triphosphate is
A. The energy currency of the cell.
B. Is one of the products of glycolysis.
C. Is one of the products of the citric acid cycle.
D. Is a major product of the electron transport chain.
E. All of the above.
33. The basic structural and functional units of any living organism are
D. Cells.
34. Components of the cell membrane that attach cells to the basement membrane are
C. Hemidesmosomes.
35. The movement of substances across the plasma membrane that requires energy from ATP is
C. Active transport.
36. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of greater lesser solute concentration to an area of greater solute concentration is
B. Osmosis.
37. The assembly site of proteins from amino acids is
B. Ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
38. Lipid synthesis is accomplished by
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
39. Cells that are active in detoxification have many
B. Peroxisomes.
40. The major production site for adenosine triphosphate is
E. Mitochondria
41. Microtubules made of tubulin can be found in
A. Spindle fibers.
B. The cytoskeleton.
C. Flagella.
D. Cilia.
E. All of the above.
42. The movement of substances from the outside of the cell to the inside involves
A. Pinocytosis.
B. Phagocytosis.
C. Endocytosis.
D. All of the above.
43. The ability of cells to recognize whether a cell is a self cell or a foreign cell is largely due to
C. Glycoproteins.
44. Mitosis differs from meiosis in that in mitosis
A. The resulting nuclei have exact copies of the parent cells nuclei.
45. The nervous system develops from the embryonic germ layer known as
C. Ectoderm.
46. The specialized region of cells that function in intercellular communication are
D. Gap junctions.
47. Glands that have ducts and secrete parts of their cells with the secretion are
A. Apocirne glands.
48. Sweat glands are
B. Merocrine glands.
49. Mammary glands are
A. Apocirne glands.
50. Which of the following are classified as connective tissue?
A. Adipose tissue
B. Bones
C. Cartilage
D. Blood
E. All of the above.
51. The most distinguishing feature of connective tissue is
B. An abundant extracellular matrix.
52. Connective tissue cells that are involved in breaking down the cellular matrix for remodeling have _____________________ as suffix in their name.
A. Clasts
53. Which of the following are characteristic of skeletal muscle?
A. Striated, voluntary, and with each cell being multinucleated.
54. The membranes lining body cavities that open to the outside of the body are
C. Mucus membranes.
55. Nerve cells with several to many dendrites and one axon are
D. Multipolar neurons.
56. Which of the following is not part of the integumentary system?
C. The hypodermis.
57. Half of a person’s stored body fat is found in
C. The hypodermis.
58. Choose the correct sequence of layers of the dermis and epidermis in thick skin going from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer.
1. Stratum germinativum.
2. Stratum corneum.
3. Stratum granulosum
4. Reticular layer.
5. Stratum lucidum
6. Papillary layer
7. Stratum spinosum

B. 4,6,1,7,3,5,2
59. Which of the following layers is most responsible for the ridges on the skin that make fingerprints, foot prints, and palm prints.
E. The papillary layer of the dermis.
60. Desquamation takes place in which of the following layers?
A. Stratum corneum.
61. In which layer of the skin to cellular organelles degenerate with subsequent cell death?
D. Stratum granulosum
62. Which cells of the epidermis function as part of the immune system?
B. Langerhans cells.
63. Cerumen is
A. Produced by ceruminous glands in the external auditory meatus.
B. Produced by sebaceous glands in the external auditory meatus.
C. Commonly referred to as earwax.
D. All of the above.
64. Scalp hair grows
C. For two or three years and then rests for a year or two.
65. Third degree burns involve damage to
B. The epidermis, dermis and underlying tissues.
1. The skeletal system is composed of
A. Bones.
B. Cartilage.
C. Tendons.
D. Ligaments
2. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system
C. Storage of Vitamin D
3. _______________ are mature cartilage cells that are found within _______________ and are derived from __________________________.
B. Chondrocytes; lacunae; chondroblasts
4. Cartilage grows by
A. Appositional growth.
B. Laying down new matrix and adding chondrocytes to the outside layer.
C. Interstitial growth,
D. Division of chondrocytes and adding more matrix between cells
5. The double layered connective tissue sheath covering most cartilage is/are
D. Perichondrium
6. The cartilage that covers the ends of bones where they meet at joints is
A. Hyaline cartilage.
B. Articular cartilage
7. Damaged cartilage takes a relatively long time to heal. Why
A. Because nutrients have to diffuse through the cartilage matrix to reach the chondrocytes.
B. Because of a lack of penetration by blood vessels and nerves
8. Lamellar bone is
A. Compact bone
9. An osteon consists of
A. A haversian canal.
B. Concentric lamellae.
C. Canaliculi.
D. Osteocytes.
10. Vertebrae, and bones of the face are classified as
D. Irregular bones
11. Carpals and tarsals are
B. Short bones
12. Ribs and sternum are
C. Flat bones
13. ___________ bones have diaphyses
A. Long
14. Growth of long bones takes place in
C. Hyaline cartilage of the epiphyseal plate
15. The outer covering of bones is
A. Periosteum.
Tendons and ligaments attach to bones
F. By collagen fibers that are continuous with those of the periostium.
G. By collagen fibers penetrating the periostium into the outer bone.
H. By Sharpey’s fibers.
I. By perforating fibers
16. The internal cavities of bones are lined with
C. Endostium
17. _________________________ are mature bone cells whose cell bodies are found in spaces called _________________ and whose cell processes occupy_________________.
B. Osteocytes; lacunae; canaliculi
18. If the organic matter, such as collagen is removed from bones the bone becomes
B. Brittle
19. Osteochondral progenitor cells
A. Are stem cells.
B. Become chondroblasts.
C. Become osteoblasts
21. Circumferential lamellae
D. Are the outer layers of compact bone
22. During embryonic development bone is formed by
A. Intramembranous ossification.
B. Ossification within connective tissue membranes.
C. Endochondral ossification.
D. The conversion of cartilage into bone
24. The larger membrane covered spaces in the skull of a newborn are
C. Fontanels
25. Which of the following bones develop by intramembranous ossification
A. The diaphyses of the clavicles.
B. Part of the mandible.
C. Many of the skull bones
29. Excessive bone growth is most likely associated with
B. Excess growth hormone
F. Lack of collagen in the bones and scurvy are usually the result of
G. A lack of vitamin C
30. Insufficient calcium absorption that could lead to rickets can be caused by
B. Insufficient Vitamin D.
31. Early closure of the epiphyseal plate is the result of
E. Estrogen
32. Increased number of osteoclasts and increased blood calcium levels results from
D. Production of parathyroid hormone
33. Decreased osteoclast activity results from
A. The secretion of calcitonin.
B. Osteoprotegerin
34. A dentate fracture is
B. A fracture that has rough toothed edges at the break site
35. A comminuted fracture is
A. A complete fracture in which the bone breaks into more than two pieces
36. A hairline fracture is
fracture in which the bone edges are still in place
37. A fracture in which a part of a bone is driven into the cancellous part of another is
C. An impacted fracture
38. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a hereditary disease resulting in
A. Bones with decreased flexibility and brittleness.
B. Bones with abnormal collagen.
39. Osteomalacia is
C. The softening of bones due to calcium depletion
40. Osteoporosis is
A. A condition in which the rate of bone resorption exceeds the rate of bone formation
Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A. Manufacture of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
B. Protection for delicate organs they enclose.
C. Storage of calcium and phosphorus.
D. All of the above.
The outermost layer of a bone is
C. Periosteum.
. Lamellar bone is
A. Compact bone.
A haversian system consists of
A. Osteocytes.
B. A haversian canal.
C. Concentric lamellae.
D. Canaliculi.
E. All of the above.
Choose the correct sequence of blood flow into the deepest parts of a Haversian system.
1. Canaliculi
2. Lacunae
3. Perforating canal, or Volkmann’s canal.
4. Central canal

B. 3,4,2,1
Osteochondral progenitor cells are
A. Stem cells.
B. Become cartilage cells.
C. Become bone cells.
D. All of the above.
Many skull bones, part of the mandible, and the diaphyses of the clavicles are formed
B. By intramembranous ossification.
Mature bone cells called _________________ are found in spaces called ______________, and whose cell processes occupy ___________________________.
C. Osteocytes; lacunae; canaliculi
A comminuted fracture is
A. A complete fracture in which the bone breaks into more than two pieces.
The condition in which the rate of bone resorption exceeds the rate of bone formation is
Osteoporosis.
Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
D. The coxal bone.
On average, the adult human skeleton contains ________ bones
A. 206
B. 80
C. 126
D. 332
E. 186
Human skeletons that contain more bones than average may have
A. Extra small sutural bones, sometimes called wormian bones, along the lambdoid suture of the skull.
B. Lack of fusion of the vertebrae that form the sacrum, or the coccyx.
C. One or two sesamoid bones between the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal of the thumb.
D. All of the above.
The coxal bone of the adult skeleton is formed by
A. Fusion of the ilium with the ischium.
B. Fusion of the pubis with the ilium.
C. Fusion of the pubis with the ischium.
D. All of the above.
The term that describes a deep narrow depression in a bone is
A. Sulcus.
The term that describes a branch off of the body of a bone is
C. Ramus.
The term that describes a very high ridge on a bone is
D. Spine.
The term that describes a tunnel through a bone is
A. Meatus.
Cervical vertebrae can be differentiated from other vertebrae of the spinal column by
A. The presence of bifid spinous processes on most of them.
B. The presence of transverse foramina.
E. Only A & B.
Abnormal curvature of the vertebral column in a lateral direction is a condition called
C. Scoliosis.
Incomplete formation of the vertebral arch, usually in the lumbar region, results
D. Spina bifida.
The term that describes a freely movable joint is
B. Diarthrosis.
Which of the following characteristics do sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses, have in common?
A. They are joints that are united by fibrous connective tissue.
B. They have no joint cavity.
C. They exhibit little or no movement.
D. All of the above.
The type of joints that consists of pegs fitting into sockets are
D. Gomphoses
The type of joints that has the greatest range of motion are
E. Synovial.
Synchondroses
A. Are joints that are joined by hyaline cartilage.
B. Are joints that are the most likely to ossify to form synostoses.
C. Are found in the epiphyseal plate of long bones.
D. All of the above.
Rotating the forearm so the palm of the hand faces upward is an example of
C. Supination.
The active range of motion is
A. The maximum amount of motion that can be achieved by contracting the muscles that normally act across a joint.
B. Usually about equal to the passive range of motion.

E. Only A & B.
Facial pain, earache, joint noise, or reduction in the range of motion are most often characteristics of a disorder in the
A. Temporomandibular joint.
The type of muscle that is the most widely distributed and has the greatest variety of functions is
C. Smooth muscle.
The plasma membrane surrounding a muscle fiber is called the
A. Sarcolemma.
Skeletal muscle can be differentiated from smooth muscle and cardiac muscle in that it is
A. Largely voluntary.
B. Generally multinucleated.
C. Striated.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A & B.
Muscle myofibrils are composed of
A. Myofilaments made of actin.
B. Myofilaments made of myosin.
C. Sarcomeres
D. All of the above.
The best definition of a sarcomere is
A. The myofilaments that extend from one Z disk to the next Z disk.
Actin myofilaments are held in place by
A. A filamentous network of protein fibers at the Z disk.
B. A large protein molecule called nebulin that extends from one end of the fibrous actin to the other.
E. Only A & B.
36. Myosin myofilaments are held in place by
A. Titin, a large protein molecule that attaches to the Z disks.
B. Delicate filaments at the M line.
E. Both A & B.
37. The area of a sarcomere in which actin and myosin overlap is
A. The anisotropic band (The A band).
38. Each myosin myofilament is composed of
A. Several hundred myosin molecules half of which have their club shaped heads oriented one way and half in the other direction along the long axis.
B. Repetitive pairs of heavy myosin molecules, with each pair wound together making a rod portion with two laterally extending heads.
C. Four light myosin attached to the heads of the heavy mysoin moloecules.
D. All of the above.
39. Choose the correct sequence of events for the stimulation of an action potential in a muscle fiber by a nerve axon.
1. Ligand-gated sodium ion channels open causing depolarization of the sarcolemma.
2. An action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal of a neuron causing calcium ion channels in the plasma membrane to open.
3. Acetylcholine binds to ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma
4. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft.
5. Calcium ions enter the presynaptic terminal.
D. 2,5,4,3,1
40. Choose the correct sequence of events for muscle contraction to occur.
1. Myosin heads bind to active sites on globular actin.
2. Depolarization of the transverse tubules causes calcium ions to be released into the sarcoplasm.
3. Action potentials are propagated along the sarcolemma.
4. Calcium ions bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to uncover the active sites on G actin.
5. Myosin heads move at their hinged region sliding actin past the myosin myofilaments.

A. 3,2,4,1,5
41. A motor unit consists of
C. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers innervated by axon terminals from that neuron.
42. The “all or none law of skeletal muscle contraction means
A. A sub-threshold stimulus does not produce an action potential.
B. A threshold stimulus produces an action potential and contraction.
C. A stronger than threshold stimulus produces a contraction of the same magnitude as a threshold stimulus.
D. All of the above.
43. Skeletal muscles increase in size because of
A. An increase in sarcomeres.
B. An increase in the number of myofibrils.
C. An increase in the number of nuclei and mitochondria in each cell.
D. All of the above.
44. Depletion of ATP
A. Causes muscular fatigue.
B. Can result in physiologic contracture.
C. Rigor mortis.
D. Inability of the myosin heads to release from the active sites on G actin.
E. All of the above.
45. Slow twitch muscle fibers
A. Have many mitochondria.
B. Are high in myoglobin.
C. Have many capillaries.
D. Are smaller than fast twitch fibers.
E. All of the above.
46. Smooth muscle is not striated because
B. Actin and myosin overlap, but they are organized as loose bundles.
47. Smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that smooth muscle
A. Lacks transverse tubules.
B. Uses calmodulin to activate myosin kinase to transfer phosphate along with energy from ATP to the myosin heads.
C. Uses myosin phosphatase to remove phosphate from the myosin heads.
D. All of the above.
48. The end of a muscle attached to the more movable part is
C. The insertion.
49. If there are two synergists involved in a movement the muscle that accomplishes the flexion is
A. The agonist.
B. The prime mover.
E. Both A & B.
50. A Class III lever system
A. Has the pull, or force, located between the fulcrum and the weight. .
B. Is the most common type of lever system in the body.
C. Is equivalent to doing curls with a bar bell.
D. All of the above.
51. A muscle named teres would be
D. Round
52. A muscle having the name rectus would
B. Be straight with fasciculi oriented parallel to the long axis of the muscle.