Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/130

Click to flip

130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
(001) Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

a. Off-equipment.
b. On-equipment.
c. Preventive.
d. Corrective.
c.Preventive.
(001) Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

a. Cross-tells.
b. Self-inspections.
c. Technical orders.
d. National stock numbers.
a.Cross-tells.
(001) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance group commander.
d. Maintenance group superintendent.
c.Maintenance group commander.
(002) Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

a. Two-level maintenance.
b. Organizational.
c. Intermediate.
d. Depot.
c.Intermediate.
(002) All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and the Maintenance Group commander.
b. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
d. Quality Assurance and Maintenance Management Analysis.
c.Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
(002) What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations?

a. Regional Repair Centers.
b. Centralized Repair Facilities.
c. Programmed Depot Maintenance.
d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program.
b.Centralized Repair Facilities.
(003) What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability?

a. Quality Assurance.
b. Reliability and Maintainability.
c. Programmed Depot Maintenance.
d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement.
b.Reliability and Maintainability.
(003) Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known?

a. 1A.
b. 1B.
c. 2A.
d. 2B.
b.1B.
(003) Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Quality Assurance.
d.Quality Assurance.
(004) Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?

a. Technical orders.
b. Support agreements.
c. Air Force instructions.
d. Operating instructions.
d.Operating instructions.
(004) When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

a. wing OIs.
b. separate group OIs.
c. support agreements.
d. Air Force instructions.
a.wing OIs.
(005) Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?

a. 95.
b. 244.
c. 427.
d. 781 series.
a.95.
(005) Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

a. in units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another.
b. as long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for.
c. to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.
d. in the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system.
c.to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.
(005) What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?

a. 781J.
b. 245.
c. 244.
d. 95.
d.95.
(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

a. C-E Equipment Status.
b. Job Data Documentation.
c. Status and Inventory Reporting.
d. Comprehensive Engine Management System.
d.Comprehensive Engine Management System
(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?

a. Operational Events.
b. Maintenance Events.
c. Job Data Documentation.
d. Aircraft Automated Forms 781A, J, K.
b.Maintenance Events.
17(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?

a. Operational Events.
b. Maintenance Events.
c. Job Data Documentation.
d. Aircraft Automated Forms 781A, J, K.
c.Job Data Documentation.
(006) Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Programs and Resources.
d. Every user.
b.Maintenance Management Analysis.
(006) In addition to being familiar with the unit’s assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least

a. a 5-level.
b. a 7-level.
c. a senior Airman.
d. a non-commissioned officer.
a.a 5-level.
(007) What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

a. Metrics.
b. Reports.
c. Standards.
d. Instructions.
a.Metrics.
(007) What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

a. Performance and health.
b. Trending and impacting.
c. Positive and negative.
d. Leading and lagging.
d.Leading and lagging.
(007) Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

a. Leading.
b. Lagging.
c. Trending.
d. Impacting.
a.Leading.
(007) Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows and follows firmly established trends?

a. Leading.
b. Lagging.
c. Trending.
d. Impacting.
b.Lagging.
(008) Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
a.1.
(009) Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance Group commander.
d. Maintenance Group deputy commander.
a.Wing commander.
(009) Who is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Prevention programs?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance group commander.
d. Maintenance group deputy commander.
b.Wing vice-commander.
(009) Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?

a. Maintenance group deputy commander.
b. Maintenance group commander.
c. Production superintendent.
d. Wing commander.
b.Maintenance group commander.
(009) Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG)?

a. MXG deputy commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. MXG superintendent.
d. MXG commander.
a.MXG deputy commander.
(009) Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance?

a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance group superintendent
d. Maintenance group deputy commander.
c.Maintenance group superintendent
(010) Who is held legally responsible for their unit’s Environmental Protection Agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32–7042, Waste Management?

a. Flight commanders.
b. Squadron commanders.
c. Maintenance operations officers.
d. Maintenance group commanders.
b.Squadron commanders.
(010) Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?

a. Maintenance squadron.
b. Maintenance operations flight.
c. Aircraft maintenance squadron.
d. Maintenance operations squadron.
b.Maintenance operations flight.
(010) Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

a. 55.
b. 244.
c. 435.
d. 623.
a.55.
(010) Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing crossutilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

a. accountability and control procedures.
b. deployments and wing-level taskings.
c. qualification and upgrade training.
d. scheduled maintenance actions.
c.qualification and upgrade training.
(010) Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing

a. accountability and control procedures.
b. qualification and upgrade training.
c. maintenance and flying schedules.
d. proper maintenance techniques.
a.accountability and control procedures.
(010) When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

a. Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents.
b. Maintenance Operation Center.
c. Group manning manager.
d. Squadron commander.
b.Maintenance Operation Center.
(011) How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 8.
b.3.
(011) Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?

a. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
b. Maintenance Training Flight (MTF).
c. Maintenance Operations (MOF).
d. Programs and Resources.
c.Maintenance Operations (MOF).
(011) The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?

a. Location.
b. Operational Events.
c. Maintenance Events.
d. Status and Inventory Reporting.
a.Location.
(011) Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?

a. Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section.
b. Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Engine Management.
d.Engine Management.
(011) Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Production Superintendent.
a.Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
(011) The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections?

a. Education and Training& Development and Instruction.
b. Training Management& Development and Instruction.
c. Training Development& Instruction Management.
d. Training Detachment& Training Management.
b.Training Management& Development and Instruction.
(012) What agency’s basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

a. Transient Alert.
b. Maintenance Flight.
c. Aircraft Maintenance Unit.
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron.
c.Aircraft Maintenance Unit.
(012) Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?

a. Weapons.
b. Debrief.
c. Aircraft.
d. Supply.
d.Supply.
(012) What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?

a. Landing status codes.
b. Fault Isolation manuals.
c. System capability codes.
d. Fault Reporting manuals.
d.Fault Reporting manuals.
(012) Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?

a. Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter.
b. Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief.
c. Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.
d. Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent.
c.Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.
(012) The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s number of mission assigned aircraft is more than

a. 14.
b. 16.
c. 18.
d. 20.
c.18.
(012) Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?

a. Avionics.
b. Aircrafts.
c. Specialist.
d. Communication-Navigation.
c.Specialist.
(012) Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

a. Electro-environmental specialists.
b. Propulsion specialists.
c. Avionics specialists.
d. Crew chiefs.
a.Electro-environmental specialists.
(012) Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

a. Load crew chief.
b. Flight-line expediter.
c. Weapons expediter.
d. Dedicated crew chief.
c.Weapons expediter.
(012) Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash–21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

a. Aircraft section.
b. Support section.
c. Weapons section.
d. Armament Support section.
b.Support section.
(013) Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?

a. Fabrication.
b. Armament.
c. Propulsion.
d. Egress.
d.Egress.
(013) Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed

a. 600.
b. 670.
c. 700.
d. 760.
c.700.
(013) In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

a. AFTO IMT 244s.
b. Driver radios.
c. Sub-pools.
d. Drivers.
c.Sub-pools.
(013) Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?

a. Guidance and Control Systems.
b. Communication-Navigation.
c. Avionics Intermediate.
d. Sensors.
a.Guidance and Control Systems.
(013) Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?

a. Guidance and Control Systems.
b. Communication-Navigation.
c. Avionics Intermediate.
d. Sensors.
d.Sensors.
(013) Which Fabrication Flight section’s processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?

a. Low Observable.
b. Metals Technology.
c. Non-Destructive Inspection.
d. Aircraft Structural Maintenance.
b.Metals Technology.
(013) If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the

a. Fabrication Flight.
b. Accessories Flight.
c. Aircraft Inspection Flight.
d. Two-level Maintenance Flight.
a.Fabrication Flight.
(013) Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?

a. Production.
b. Material.
c. Systems.
d. Support.
b.Material.
(013) Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?

a. Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.
b. Engine Equipment Maintenance.
c. Module/Accessory Repair.
d. Small Gas Turbine Engine.
a.Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.
(013) The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment(TMDE) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the

a. geographically separated units.
b. Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory.
c. Rapid Assistance Support for Calibration.
d. Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory.
b.Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory.
(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
a. Air Combat Command (ACC).
b. Air Training Command (ATC).
c. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight
(MTF) training course?
a. Any 7-level course.
b. Weight and Balance.
c. Maintenance Orientation.
d. General Technical Order System
c. Maintenance Orientation.
(202) How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review
and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
b. Semi-annually.
(202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by
the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
a. TSgt.
b. MSgt.
c. SMSgt.
d. CMSgt.
b. MSgt.
(203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
(203) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”
board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update
information?
a. Open suspenses.
b. System upgrades.
c. Application problems.
d. Changes to your user roles.
c. Application problems.
(204) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,
and maintenance qualification training?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
b. II.
(204) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that
complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and
training detachment (TD) courses?
a. Maintenance qualification.
b. Maintenance refresher.
c. On-the-job.
d. Ancillary.
a. Maintenance qualification.
(205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)
briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
a. Monthly.
(205) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or
incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many
days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
b. 30.
(205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor
before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
a. Operations officer.
b. Group commander.
c. Unit training manager.
d. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
c. Unit training manager.
(206) Manpower authorizations are
a. funded.
b. unfunded.
c. unvalidated.
d. both funded and unfunded.
a. funded.
(206) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. semiannually.
b. monthly.
(207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting
maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
a. 12 hours.
b. 13 hours.
c. 14 hours.
d. 15 hours.
a. 12 hours.
(207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour
shift up to
a. 14 hours.
b. 15 hours.
c. 16 hours.
d. 18 hours.
c. 16 hours
(208) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply
interface and resolving supply support problems?
a. Maintenance supply liaison.
b. Maintenance supply support.
c. Maintenance operations center.
d. Maintenance data system analysis.
a. Maintenance supply liaison.
(208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
(208) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
(208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the
host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
b. 30.
(209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an
asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
a. XF3.
b. XD2.
c. XD1.
d. XB3.
d. XB3.
(209) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
a. 30.
(209) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and
re-mark with a new expiration date?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
b. II.
(209) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to
meet local manufacture requirements?
a. MXG Commander.
b. MXG Superintendent.
c. MXG Deputy Commander.
d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
(209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering
data?
a. Audio Visual Center.
b. Engineering Data Service Center.
c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
d. Communication and Information System.
b. Engineering Data Service Center.
(210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
a. Oil sheen on standing water.
b. Stressed vegetation.
c. Stains on ground.
d. Cloudy water.
d. Cloudy water.
(210) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to
notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
a. Operations officer.
b. Section supervisor.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Squadron safety monitor.
b. Section supervisor.
(210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
(211) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
a. Section supervisor.
b. Squadron Commander.
c. Flight Commander/Chief.
d. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
b. Squadron Commander.
(211) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as
a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
a. I.
b. III.
c. IIB.
d. IIA.
c. IIB.
(211) What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
(211) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
(211) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose
recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.
c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
(211) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a
combination of two or more precious metals?
a. A.
b. C.
c. G.
d. P.
b. C.
(212) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed
during the day?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
(212) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an
urgency of need (UND) code of A?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
(212) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and
bench stock supply support?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
(213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security
cages and alarmed rooms?
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Host installation commander.
c. Operations Group Commander.
d. Mission Support Group commander.
b. Host installation commander.
(213) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or
confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished
every
a. hour.
b. 2 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 4 hours.
c. 3 hours.
(213) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional
check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
a. Flight commander/Chief.
b. Maintenance Group commander.
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
d. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
(214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts
request?
a. Customer.
b. Maintenance Supply support.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.
a. Customer.
(214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and
pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
a. 1A or JA.
b. AR or BR.
c. AA or AM.
d. BM or CM.
b. AR or BR.
(215) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must
Maintenance coordinate with?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
c. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
d. LRS material management element.
d. LRS material management element.
(215) Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter
supply point monitor?
a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
b. Semiannually.
(215) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB),
supply personnel notify the
a. Operations Officer.
b. Aircraft Section flight chief.
c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
d. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated
scheduler.
c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
(216) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report
is submitted?
a. Deficiency Report (DR).
b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
(216) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the
submitting organization or group?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.
d. Originating Point.
(216) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting
organization?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.
b. Action Point.
(216) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to
the Screening Point within
a. 8 hours.
b. 16 hours.
c. 24 hours.
d. 32 hours.
c. 24 hours.
(217) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office
(TODO) duty?
a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
b. Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
c. Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
d. Resolving TO availability problems.
a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
(218) What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing
maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and
management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Maintenance Operations Center.
c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
(219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)
section?
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Engine Management.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Maintenance Data System Analysis
a. Quality Assurance.
(219) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
a. Urgent.
b. Routine.
c. Standard.
d. Emergency.
c. Standard.
(220) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
a. A4MT.
b. A4YE.
c. A4U.
d. A4BM.
c. A4U.
(221) Who designates cannibalization authorities?
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
c. MXG Vice Commander.
d. MXG Superintendent.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
(221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to
notify
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
(221) Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
a. Weapons loading operations.
b. Radiographic inspections.
c. Fuel system repair.
d. Aircraft on jacks.
a. Weapons loading operations.
(221) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
a. air aborts.
b. late takeoffs.
c. ground aborts.
d. aircraft status changes
d. aircraft status changes
(221) Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
d. Applicable Squadron commander.
c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
(222) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for
control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance
industrial areas?
a. Wing Commander (WG/CC).
b. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).
c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
d. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
(222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to
identify tools and equipment?
a. 8.
b. 9.
c. 10.
d. 11.
b. 9.
(223) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
a. Maintenance Flight.
b. Quality Assurance section.
c. Engine Management section.
d. Maintenance Operations Center.
b. Quality Assurance section.
(223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager
within how many hours of a FOD incident?
a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48.
c. 24.
(223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not
considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
a. Bolt.
b. Panel.
c. Safety pin.
d. Explosive munitions.
d. Explosive munitions.
(223) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.
a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
(224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance
recovery operation?
a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
(225) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the
required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
a. Wing Inspector General.
b. MAJCOM Inspector General.
c. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
(225) When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation
Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance
(QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
a. 30.
(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
a. Quality Verification Inspection.
b. Management Inspection.
c. Personnel Evaluation.
d. Special Inspection.
c. Personnel Evaluation.
(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
performed after a technician completes a task?
a. Special Inspection.
b. Personnel Evaluation.
c. Management Inspection.
d. Quality Verification Inspection
d. Quality Verification Inspection
(227) In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s
interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
a. Air Force Mobility Command.
b. Quality Assurance.
c. Inspector General.
d. Lead command.
d. Lead command.