Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/131

Click to flip

131 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is Administrative Segregation ?

• The physical separation of different type of inmates from one another ;
• The removal of inmates from the showers ;
• The removal of inmates from the dining room ; or
• None of the above.
The physical separation of different type of inmates from one another.

(Title 15)
A person who is detained in a "Court Holding Cell," shall not be detained there for a period not to exceed _______ hours.

• 8 hours;
• 10 hours;
• 12 hours; or
• 16 hours.
(Title 15 pg.2)
12 hours.

(Title 15 pg.2)
The Facility/System Administrator means the _____________ charged with the administration of a local detention facility/system.

• Sheriff;
• Chief of Police;
• Chief Probation Officer;
• Any Official ; or
• Any or all of the above.
Any or all of the above.

“Facility/system administrator” means the sheriff, chief of police, chief probation officer, or other official charged by law with the administration of a local detention facility/system.

(Title 15 pg.2)
Who is the Facility Manager ?

• Sheriff
• Chief of Police
• Chief Probation Officer
• Jail or Facility Commander
• Any or all of the above
Any or all of the above.

“Facility manager” means the jail commander, camp superintendent, or other comparable employee who has been delegated the responsibility for operating a local detention facility by a facility administrator.

(Title 15 pg.2)
Licensed health personnel includes which of the following:

• Physician/Psychiatrist;
• Dentist ;
• Pharmacist ;
• Physicians Assistant ;
• Registered Nurse/Nurse Practitioner ;
• Public Health Nurse ;
• Licensed Vocational Nurse ;
• Psychiatric Technician ; or
• Any or all of the above.
Any or all of the above.

“Licensed health personnel” includes but is not limited to the following classification of personnel: physician/psychiatrist, dentist, pharmacist, physician’s assistant, registered nurse/nurse practitioner/public health nurse, licensed vocational nurse, and psychiatric technician.

(Title 15 pg.3)
Living areas are areas utilized for the day-to-day housing and activities of inmates.
Do living areas include detoxification, safety, and holding or staging cells ?

Yes or No ?
No.

“Living areas” means those areas of a facility utilized for the day-to-day housing and activities of inmates. These areas do not include special use cells such as sobering, safety, and holding or staging cells normally located in receiving areas.

(Title 15 pg.3)
A Local Detention Facility is:

• Any City, County, City and County, or Regional Jail Camp, Court Holding Facility or other correctional facility
• Whether publicity or privately operated, used for confinement of adults or both adults and minors
• But does not include that portion of facility for confinement of both adults and minors which is devoted only to the confinement of minors.
• All of the above
All of the above.

“Local detention facility” means any city, county, city and county or regional jail, camp, court holding facility, or other correctional facility, whether publicly or privately operated,
used for confinement of adults or of both adults and minors, but does not include that portion of a facility for confinement of both adults and minors which is devoted only to the confinement of minors.

(Title 15 pg.3)
True or False, "Local Detention System" means all the local detention facilities that are under the jurisdiction of a city, county or combination thereof whether publicly or privately operated.
True

“Local detention system” means all of the local detention facilities that are under the jurisdiction of a city, county or combination thereof whether publicly or privately operated. Nothing in the standards are to be construed as creating enabling language to broaden or restrict privatization of local detention facilities beyond that which is contained in statute.

(Title 15 pg. 3)
A "Temporary Holding Facility" means a local detention facility used for the confinement of persons for _______ hours or less pending release, transfer to another facility, or appearance in court:

• 12;
• 24;
• 10; or
• 8
24 hours.

“Temporary Holding facility” means a local detention facility constructed after January 1, 1978, used for the confinement of persons for 24 hours or less pending release, transfer to another facility or appearance in court.

(Title 15 pg. 4)
Of the following choices, which could be categorized as a Type I Facility:

• A Local Detention Facility used for the detention of persons for not more than 96 hours excluding holidays after booking;
• The detention of persons under court order for their own safekeeping;
• Inmate workers sentenced to county jail ; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

“Type I facility” means a local detention facility used for the detention of persons for not more than 96 hours excluding holidays after booking. Such a Type I facility may also detain persons on court order either for their own safekeeping or sentenced to a city jail as an inmate worker, and may house inmate workers sentenced to the county jail provided such placement in the facility is made on a voluntary basis on the part of the inmate. As used in this section, an inmate worker is defined as a person assigned to perform designated tasks outside of his/her cell or dormitory, pursuant to the written policy of the facility, for a minimum of four hours each day on a five day scheduled work week.

(Title 15 pg. 4)
Regarding Domestic Disturbances, field personnel shall determine if the incident involved:

• Criminal Domestic Violence;
• Noncriminal Domestic Violence;
• Domestic Dispute;
• All of the above; or
• None of the above.
All of the above.

Field personnel who are called to the scene of a domestic disturbance shall determine if the incident involved "Criminal Domestic Violence," "Noncriminal Domestic Violence" or if it was a "Domestic Dispute."

(5-9/030.00)
Abuse committed against an adult or fully emancipated minor who is a spouse, former spouse cohabitant, former cohabitant or a person with whom the suspect has had a child or has had a dating or engagement relationship. This definition refers to:

• Abuse;
• Domestic Violence;
• Criminal Domestic Violence;
• Noncriminal Domestic Violence; or
• Domestic Dispute.
Domestic Violence

(5-9/030.00)
Any familiar co-habitant or dating relationship incident absent of abuse or apprehension of imminent serious bodily injury. This definition refers to ?

• Abuse;
• Domestic Violence;
• Criminal Domestic Violence;
• Noncriminal Domestic Violence; or
• Domestic Dispute.
Domestic Dispute

(5-9/030.00)
Domestic Violence involving an arrestable violation of the law, this definition refers to:

• Abuse;
• Domestic Violence;
• Criminal Domestic Violence;
• Noncriminal Domestic Violence; or
• Domestic Dispute.
Criminal Domestic Violence.

(5-9/030.00)
Domestic Violence where a specific crime has not been committed, but there is apprehension of imminent serious bodily injury. This definition refers to:

• Abuse;
• Domestic Violence;
• Criminal Domestic Violence;
• Non-criminal Domestic Violence; or
• Domestic Dispute.
Non-Criminal Domestic Violence.

(5-9/030.00)
In all incidents involving Domestic Violence, a complaint report shall be written. All "Domestic Disputes" require only:

• A definitive Log Entry;
• A complaint Report;
• A Temporary Restraining Order (TRO); or
• None of the above.
A definitive Log Entry.

(5-9/030.00)
An Ex Parte order initiated by one party and issued prior to a formal hearing, is the definition of an ?

• Injunction;
• Temporary Restraining Order;
• Writ of Mandate;
• Ex Parte Order; or
• None of the above.
A Temporary Restraining Order.

A TRO is an ex parte order initiated by one party and issued prior to a formal hearing. It is written onto the face of petitions that have been filed in court and may have been served to parties concerned in an action.

(5-9/040.00)
An ____________________ is issued at the time of a hearing. It is a formal order signed by the Judge of the Superior Court issuing the order.

• Injunction;
• Temporary Restraining Order;
• Writ of Mandate;
• Court Order; or
• None of the above.
Injunction

(5-9/040.00)
The 1980 Domestic Violence Prevention Act generally provides for the following:

• Permits family/household members to petition for an ex parte (initiated by one member) TRO to prevent domestic violence;
• Permits the court to restrain any party from molesting abusing, threatening, sexually assaulting or doing similar acts to specifically named family/household members;
• Permits the court to order a party to vacate a dwelling if that party threatens to or assaults a member of the household;
• Extending the duration of a restraining order to a length of time specified by the court (up to one year);
• Provides for the delivery of the order to local law enforcement agencies by the petitioner or the petitioner's attorney; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-9/040.05)
When a TRO, Court Order or Protective Stay Away Order (pursuant to section 136.2(g) PC) has been issued to prevent the recurrence of domestic violence and is directed to this Department, which of the following procedures shall be adhered to:

• Bailiffs shall sign for the receipt of the document on the original order when presented by the county clerk;
• The document shall be delivered/mailed by the County clerk or Court Services Division to the Sheriff's station having jurisdiction where it is anticipated a breach may occur;
• The station having jurisdiction shall be responsible for recording and maintaining a file of all TROs received for the duration of the life of the order ;
• The station shall attach all extensions, modifications and/or terminations received to the original document(s) on file;
• Upon service of the TRO, the assigned station shall immediately notify the Department of Justice, via CLETS, of the name, race and the date of birth of the person who is restrained, as well as the date of issuance and the duration of the order;
• The Records and Identification Bureau shall forward TROs received from the court, plaintiffs or attorneys to the station having jurisdiction; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-9/040.05)
Often, the deputy is called to the scene of a family disturbance and encounters a situation where a husband and wife are in the process of obtaining a dissolution of marriage (divorce). Emotions run high, and the danger of the situation escalating into a crime of physical violence is great. For this reason, the Superior Court will often issue restraining orders to prohibit certain activity on the part of one or both of the principals. Therefore, it is ______ correct to advise the parties that the dispute is civil and take no action.

• Not;
• Always;
• Never;
• Absolutely; or
• None of the above.
Not correct

(5-9/040.10)
Of the following important items, which one should be carefully examined prior to arresting for a violation of a TRO ?

• The complainant has a valid copy of the TRO bearing a file stamp of the issuing court ;
• Check the dates on the order to ensure the TRO is valid ;
• Make reasonably sure the person has been served with the order; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-9/040.10)
A violation of any Court Order/TRO is a ______________, and is an arrestable offense under section _______ PC whether or not it is committed in the presence of the deputy.

• Misdemeanor/273.5 ;
• Felony/273.5 ;
• Misdemeanor/273.6 ;
• Felony/273.6 ; or
• None of the above.
Misdemeanor; 273.6 PC

(5-9/040.10)
When a deputy verifies that a TRO exists but cannot verify proof of service or prior knowledge of the order by the suspect, the deputy shall:

• Inform the suspect of the terms of the order and allow him an opportunity to read and comply with the order;
• Advise the suspect that he has now been served and that any violation of the order will result in his arrest;
• Make a report, even if the suspect complies after admonishment of the TRO;
• Update the station's copy of the TRO to indicate that the suspect was advised of the TRO; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-9/040.10)
What is Penal Code Section 166(4) ?

• Willful disobedience of any process or order lawfully issued by any court;
• Willful disobedience of your parents;
• Willful child neglect; or
• All of the above.
Willful disobedience of any process or order lawfully issued by any court.

(5-9/040.15)
Upon receiving requests to enforce TRO's and injunctions from management representatives or union officials, deputies shall, prior to taking any enforcement action pursuant to court orders perform which of the following tasks ?

• Consult with station supervisor
• Consult with an Industrial Relations Detail representative immediately by telephone
• Both of the above
• None of the above
Both of the above.

• Consult with their Station supervisor, and
• Consult with an Industrial Relations Detail representative immediately by telephone.

(5-9/040.15)
All requests and court orders for witness security will be assigned to the Detective Division. Units receiving requests shall make a telephone notification to ______________________. The method and level of security shall be determined by the Detective Division in cooperation with the requesting division, agency or court. Necessary personnel and equipment from the Detective Division will be augmented, on request, by the Field Operations Regions. _____________________ will effect all necessary arrangements and any other specific requirements. All funding for Endangered Witness Security operations will be processed by the _________________.

• Fugitive Detail;
• Metro Vice Bureau ;
• Special Investigations Bureau;
• Special Enforcement Bureau; or
• None of the above.
None of the above.

Major Crimes Bureau will do all of the above.

(5-9/050.00)
When handling juvenile cases, deputy personnel shall remember that the ____ and the _______ conduct are the goals to be achieved. Therefore, all feasible steps shall be taken to properly adjust or refer juvenile cases to the proper social agency before court action is taken.

• Protection of society;
• Prevention of delinquent ;
• Protection of the juvenile ;
• Prevention of criminal behavior; or
• A Combination of the Above.
The protection of society and the prevention of deliquent conduct.

(5-2/000.00)
Juveniles alleged to be delinquent shall be referred to as __________, of, in dependency matters, as _________. It is of utmost importance that attitude, demeanor and speech toward juveniles be civil and respectful but at the same time firm.

• Subjects;
• Victims;
• Both of the above; or
• None of the above.
Both of the above.
Subjects in deliquency matters and victims in dependance matters.

(5-2/000.00)
Which Statement(s) are true regarding Juvenile Arrest Records ?

• Juvenile records are destroyed when the subject reaches 18 yrs., regardless of the offense;
• It is at the discretion of the presiding judge whether a juvenile case will become a part of the juveniles permanent record;
• A juvenile arrest record is a permanent record and is not destroyed when the juvenile becomes 18 yrs old;
• An adult may petition the court to have his/her juvenile record remained sealed ; or
• None of the above.
A juvenile arrest record is a permanent record and is not destroyed when the juvenile becomes 18 yrs old.

(5-1/000.05)
Information regarding detained juvenile subjects may be released to other law enforcement agencies and persons having a legitimate need for the information. Persons permitted to receive this information include which of the following:

• The news media through Sheriff's Headquarters Bureau;
• Department of Motor Vehicles and the Department of Justice;
• All Probation Departments;
• California Youth Authority; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-2/010.00)
The release of information by school officials to law enforcement agencies is regulated specifically by which codes:

• California State Codes;
• Federal Codes;
• Municipal Codes;
• California Educational Codes; or
• All of the above.
The California Education Code.

(5-1/010.05)
In compliance with mandatory reporting guidelines, schools shall provide necessary information in the which of the following cases:

• Reporting of child abuse or sexual molestation of students under the age of 18 (11166 PC);
• Student assaults on, threats toward, or menacing of school personnel (44014 Ed.C.);
• Infliction of a non-accidental injury upon a pupil by any person (11166 PC);
• Student assaults with a deadly weapon upon another person (48909 Ed.C.); or
• All of the above
All of the above.

(5-2/010.05)
Under what conditions are Juvenile Information Forms (JIF) used (Yellow form/Sh-Cr-265) ?

• JIF are used by patrol only;
• JIF are used in addition to a complaint report;
• JIF are used when the juvenile is not arrested and the situation can be handled to conclusion by the Deputy; or
• The cases that apply include; petty theft/under 14 yrs; misdemeanors or infractions where no follow-up is required.
A JIF is used by patrol; a JIF is used when the juvenile is not arrested and the situation can be handled to conclusion by the Deputy; and used in cases of petty theft/under 14 years; misdemeanors or infractions where no follow-up is required (the JIF is NOT used in addition to a Complaint Report).

(5-2/020.05)
Which statements are false regarding a "White" JIF (SH-CR-192W) ?

• This form is used by a station detective for criminal filing;
• This form is used by investigating detectives in disposing of cases where a petition request is not submitted;
• The Juvenile Automated Index (JAI) shall be updated with disposition information; or
• JAI need not be updated if a criminal filing is sought.
A station detective does not use a JIF for criminal filing purposes; and the JAI should be updated with disposition information in a timely manner.

(5-2/020.05)
Juvenile arrests and detentions fall into three categories -___________, _____________ and ___________. In alleging a violation of any of these sections, the same care and thoroughness in investigations are necessary as in an adult criminal matter.

• Delinquent, dependent, and predelinquent;
• Dependent, precriminal, and predelinquent;
• Victim, Status offender, and
• All of the above.
Delinquent, dependent, and predelinquent.

(5-2/030.00)
Regarding Dependant Nondeliquent (300 WIC) Juveniles, which of the following statements are true ?

• Any such person is a victim;
• Section 300 (a) WIC applies if juvenile is in need of proper and effective parental care;
• Section 300 (b) WIC applies if juvenile is not provided with the necessities of life, i.e. destitute;
• Section 300 (c) WIC applies if the juvenile is dangerous to the public; or
• All of the above are true statements.
Section 300 (b) WIC applies if juvenile is not provided with the necessities of life, i.e. destitute.

(5-2/030.10)
Regarding Ward/Predelinquent persons (601 WIC) , which of the following statements are false?

• Includes cases of unfit homes, abuse, neglect and similar situations;
• Includes incorrigible, loitering/curfew and transients;
• Includes runaways; or
• None of the above are false statements.
Includes cases of unfit homes, abuse, neglect and similar situations.

(5-2/030.15)
Persons arrested under this section (601 WIC) must be released to their parents or guardians. If their parents or guardians cannot be located, cannot respond, or refuse to accept custody, the minor shall be transported to a ______________________.

• Status Offenders Detention Alternative (SODA) facility;
• Juvenile Hall;
• Local Sheriff's Station; or
• McLauren Hall.
Status Offenders Detention Alternative (SODA) facility.

(5-2/030.15)
Which of the following is not a definition of juvenile detentions ?

• Temporary Custody;
• Secure Detention;
• Nonsecure Detention;
• Permanent Custody; or
• All of the above are definitions.
Permanent Custody.

(5-2/035.00)
____________ means that a minor being held in temporary custody in a law enforcement facility is locked in a room or enclosure and/or is physically secured to a cuffing rail or other stationary object.

• Secure Detention;
• Temporary custody;
• Nonsecure Detention; or
• Permanent Custody.
Secure Detention

(5-2/035.00)
________________ means that (a) a minor's freedom of movement is controlled by the staff of a facility; (b) the minor is under constant personal visual observation and supervision by staff of the law enforcement facility; (c) the minor is not locked in a room or enclosure and (d) the minor is not physically secured to a cuffing rail or other stationary object.

• Secure Detention;
• Temporary Custody;
• Non-secure Detention; or
• Permanent Custody.
Non-secure Detention

(5-2/035.00)
What is the minimum age for a secured juvenile detention ?

• 14 yrs ;
• 16 yrs ;
• 12 yrs ;
• 17 yrs ; or
• None of the above.
14 years

(5-2/035.05)
Minors held in temporary custody at a Sheriff's station shall not be securely detained unless they meet the following criteria:

• The minor is 14 years of age or older,
• There are facts or circumstances present that would lead a prudent peace officer to conclude that further criminal activity against persons or self-destructive acts on the part of the minor are likely, or that the minor may be at risk of harm if released,
• A brief time (no more than six hours) is required to investigate the case, facilitate release of the minor to a parent, guardian, or responsible relative, or arrange for the transfer of the minor to an appropriate juvenile facility.
• All of the above
All of the above

(5-2/035.05)
Which statements are false regarding conditions of secure detention:

• The secure detention will not exceed 8 hours;
• There shall be no communication between minor and adult prisoners;
• Minors shall be visually checked no less than every 30 minutes;
• Minors shall not be secured to a stationary object for more than 30 minutes; or
• All of the above are true.
The secure detention will not exceed 8 hours.

(5-2/035.10)
Each station shall maintain a "Securely Detained Juveniles Log" which shall contain the following information:

• The offense that is the basis for the secure detention,
• The reasons and circumstances for the secure detention,
• The time the secure detention began,
• The time the secure detention ended.
• All of the above
All of the above.

(5-2/035.15)
Which of the following are not conditions of non-secure detentions of minors in law enforcement facilities:

• Minors shall be under constant supervision by the staff of the facility
• Minors shall not be locked in a room or other enclosure
• Minors shall not be physically secured to a cuffing rail or other stationary object
• Minors shall not be in non-secure detention longer than six hours after their arrival at the facility before they are removed to a probation facility, or released to a parent, guardian, or responsible relative.
• If an adult prisoner, including a trusty, is present with the minor in the same room or area, staff of the law enforcement facility trained in the supervision of inmates shall maintain a constant, side-by-side presence with either the minor or adult prisoner, to ensure there is no communication between the minor and adult prisoner.
• All of the above are conditions of non-secure detention
All of the above are conditions of non-secure detention.

(5-2/035.25)
Which of the following gives Deputies the authority to arrest minors under the age of 18 years ?

• 300 WIC;
• 625 WIC;
• 601 WIC;
• 602 WIC; or
• None of the above.
625 WIC

(5-2/040.00)
The juvenile shall be advised of the right to complete ______ local telephone calls immediately after being taken to a place of confinement and, except where physically impossible, no later than _____ hour after the subject has been taken into custody (308[b] and 627[b] WIC). One call must be completed to a parent, guardian, a responsible relative, or an employer; another call may be completed to an attorney. The calls shall be placed in the presence of sworn personnel. Note on the Booking and Property Record Form (SH-J-293) if the phone calls were completed or refused:

• 4/4
• 3/2
• 3/1
• 4/1
Three (3) local telephone calls within one (1) hour.

(5-2/040.15)
_____________ may be taken into temporary custody during school hours when the minor is subject to compulsory full-time education or compulsory continuation education and found away from his home and is absent from school without a valid excuse (48264 Ed.C.).

• Incorrigible Juveniles;
• Truant Juveniles;
• Transient Juveniles;
• Runaway Juvenile; or
• Loitering/Curfew Juveniles.
Truant Juveniles.

(5-2/040.30)
Out-of-county or out-of-state runaways constitute ___________ juveniles. Following the apprehension and booking of a ____________ juvenile, the station will contact the Probation Department to arrange placement in a SODA facility (status offender detention alternative). The station shall be responsible for transportation of the minor to the SODA facility.

• Incorrigible Juveniles;
• Truant Juveniles;
• Transient Juveniles;
• Runaway Juvenile; or
• Loitering/Curfew Juveniles.
Transient Juveniles.

(5-2/040.30)
____________ juveniles (resident in L.A. County) shall be detained and released to their parents or guardians whenever possible. Diversion or an alternate solution should be sought by the investigating detective. If parents cannot be contacted or refuse to respond and detention is necessary, the station will contact he Probation Department to arrange placement in a nonsecure SODA facility. The station will be responsible for transportation to the SODA facility:

• Incorrigible Juveniles;
• Truant Juveniles;
• Transient Juveniles;
• Runaway Juvenile; or
• Loitering/Curfew Juveniles.
Runaway Juvenile

(5-2/040.30)
Deputies who intend to question an adult suspect about a crime shall admonish him of his rights when ?

• The suspect is in custody;
• The suspect is deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way;
• The suspect was arrested for sales of narcotics;
• The suspect is arrested for possession of narcotic; or
• All of the above/
The suspect is in custody.

(5-7/010.10)
Of the following statements, which one is correct:

• Adult suspects need not be admonished unless the officer intends to question them;
• Adult suspects never need to be admonished;
• Adult suspects always need to be admonished;
• Adult suspects need not be admonished by field personnel unless crime was committed in their presence; or
• All of the above
Adult suspects need not be admonished unless the officer intends to question them.

(5-7/010.05)
When shall an officer admonish a juvenile of his rights?

• Only if the officer intends to question the juvenile;
• If the juvenile was arrested for a felony;
• Immediately upon taking the juvenile into custody;
• All of the above.
• None of the above
Immediately upon taking the juvenile into custody.

(5-7/010.05)
Which of the following circumstances is the admonition of rights not required ?

• Without being questioned, a suspect offers a confession or any other statement;
• A suspect approaches a deputy in the field or at a station and tells the deputy that he wants to confess to a crime;
• When a deputy is conducting a field sobriety test;
• Issuance of a traffic citation; or
• All of the above
All of the above.

(5-7/010.05)
If after admonition, the suspect does not request an attorney and elects to remain silent, questioning ______ resume at the voluntary request of the suspect.

• Shall
• Shall not
• May
• May not
• Can
May

(5-7/010.10)
When can field deputies admonish (Mirandize and question) suspects that have cases assigned to Detective Division or the Station Detectives ?

• The suspect is seriously ill and the deputy has reasonable cause to believe that his condition may deteriorate;
• The suspect will not be available for questioning later, because he plans to post a Writ of Release or Certificate of Bailment;
• The Deputy has reasonable cause to believe that immediate questioning of the suspect is necessary;
• When no Detective is available; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/010.15)
A Writ of Habeas Corpus directed to the Sheriff commands him to bring a prisoner before a designated court at a specific time. What makes a Writ valid ?

• Be issued by a Court of competent jurisdiction;
• Be directed to the Sheriff;
• Name of the prisoner;
• Be dated;
• All of the above; or
• None of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/040.00)
When a Writ is served at a custody facility, what is the procedure for processing it:

• The Deputy accepting shall initial the process;
• Indicate date and time received;
• Send to: Watch Commander, Inmate Reception Center;
• Forward it to the concerned Court Deputy for processing; or
• All of the above.
• The Deputy accepting shall initial the process;
• Indicate date and time received; &
• Send to: Watch Commander, Inmate Reception Center.

(5-7/040.05)
Who handles the Writs involving juveniles ?

• Department of Children Services;
• Juvenile Investigations Bureau;
• Safe Streets Bureau;
• Watch Commander, IRC; or
• None of the above.
Safe Streets Bureau.

(5-7/040.015)
The Inmate Reception Center____make the return on all Writs of Habeas Corpus for criminal cases, including sentenced and unsentenced prisoners.

• Will not;
• May;
• May not;
• Will; or
• Shall not.
Will

(5-7/040.20)
Returns on Writs involving civil cases will be made by whom ?

• District Attorney
• County Counsel
• Watch Commander, IRC
• None of the above
County Counsel

(5-7/040.20)
The Superior Court issues two types of warrants, what are they called ?

• Fugitive
• Bench
• Body Attachment
• Extradition
• None of the above
Bench Warrant & Body Attachment

(5-7/050.00)
Adult Superior Court warrants are assigned to whom for service ?

• Warrants and Detainers, IRC
• Fugitive/Warrant Detail
• District Attorney Investigations
• None of the above
Fugitive/Warrant Detail

(5-7/050.00)
The responsibility for service of adult authority orders for apprehension of both male and females lies with:

• Fugitive/Warrant Detail ;
• State Parole ;
• California State Police ; or
• None of the above.
State Parole

(5-7/050.00)
What is a warrant abstract ?

• A carbon copy of an original warrant ;
• JDIC message sent by the agency which holds the original warrant ;
• JDIC message from Countywide warrant system ; or
• All of the above.
All of the above

(5-7/060.20)
Warrant abstracts are authorized by what section of the Penal Code?

• 850 PC;
• 850.1 PC;
• 850.5 PC:
• 851 PC; or
• None of the above
850 PC

(5-7/060.20)
Who has to approve the placing of a "hold" against a person arrested for warrants at a Sheriff's Station ?

• Patrol Sergeant;
• Watch Sergeant;
• Arresting Officer; or
• Watch Commander.
The Watch Sergeant.

(5-7/060.30)
What are exigent circumstances ?

• Emergency situation requiring swift action;
• Prevention of imminent danger to life and serious damage to property;
• Prevent the imminent escape of a suspect;
• Prevent the destruction of evidence; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/080.00)
Warrantless arrests in a dwelling are unreasonable, and shall not be done without consent to enter, unless there is:

• Approval by the Field Sergeant;
• Approval by the Watch Commander;
• Approval by the Watch Sergeant; or
• Exigent circumstances
Exigent circumstances.

(5-7/080.00)
The computerized information system designed for rapid retrieval of warrants and wanted persons information is called what ?

• Wanted Persons System;
• NCIC;
• CLETS;
• CWS; or
• AJIS
CWS

(5-7/110.00)
If a Subject claims that he is not the person named on a Warrant Informantion Sheet, which of the following procedures should be followed ?

• He shall not be booked;
• Shall be allowed access to his property if it contains evidence that he was erroneously arrested;
• Initiate a records search; or
• All of the above
All of the above.

(5-7/110.010)
The decision to book an arrestee on the strength of the want/warrant at the Station/Custody Facility will normally be made by whom ?

• Watch Sergeant or Custody Division Supervisor;
• Watch Commander;
• Watch Deputy; or
• Station/Unit Detective
Watch Sergeant or Custody Division Supervisor.

(5-7/110.10)
The approving Supervisor ______ indicate approval of the arrest or authorization for release by noting "booked" or "released" followed by his initials on the on the Warrant Information Sheet:

• May
• Shall
• May not
• Shall Not
Shall

(5-7/110.10)
If an arrestee is not booked after a want/warrant search at a Station/Unit, what shall be done with the arrestee ?

• Release per 849(b)(1) PC;
• Write a SH-R-49 Complaint Report;
• Release 849(b)(2) PC;
• Issue a Certificate of Release; or
• None of the above.
• Release per 849(b)(1) PC;
• Write a SH-R-49 Complaint Report; and
• Issue a Certificate of Release.

(5-7/110.10)
Persons arrested for one or more Traffic Warrants for failure to appear for a parking offense or Traffic Infraction, ________ be given ______ hours to post bail prior to being issued a booking number, fingerprinted, and photographed:

• May/3;
• Will/3 ;
• Shall/3;
• Shall not/3; or
• None of the above
Shall be given 3 hours to post bail

(5-7/110.25)
Persons with three or more Traffic Warrants __________ be booked immediately:

• May;
• Should;
• Can;
• Shall; or
• Will.
Shall

(5-7/110.25)
Wanted Persons System (WPS) want entries are purged after how many hours ?

• 24-48;
• 48-72;
• 72-96; or
• None of the above
48-72 hours.

(5-7/110.30)
NCIC want entries are purged after how many hours:

• 24 hours;
• 48 hours;
• 72 hours;
• 96 hours; or
• None of the above.
48 hours.

(5-7/110.30)
Want information is held in CWS (Countywide Warrant System) for how many days ?

• 30 days;
• 60 days;
• 90 days; or
• 120 days/
90 days.

(5-7/110.30)
When bail is accepted on abstracts received directly from an out-of-county agency, the station accepting the bail shall do what ?

• Complete the bail information;
• Send a JDIC message to the concerned agency;
• Send the abstract and other necessary paperwork to court ; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/120.15)
When a warrant is issued, CWS sends a notice to the filing, assigned, and geocoded agencies. Units that are designated as a filing/assigned agencies shall:

• Designate a member of the unit responsibility for Warrant Service;
• Provide a copy of the notice to the investigating officer;
• Maintain a file of active warrant notices until all attempts at service are exhausted;
• Attempt service at least once every 90 days to ensure due diligence;
• Investigating Officer shall add officer hazard information to the warrant record if applicable; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/110.55)
What shall the rank of a person authorized to void a citation be ?

• Sergeant ;
• Lieutenant ;
• Captain ; or
• All of the above may void a citation.
Lieutenant

(5-7/150.15)
When a suspect is arrested on a felony or misdemeanor charge and placed in custody and there are additional citable violations, the arresting officer or jailer shall:

• Obtain booking number for the arrestable charge(s) only;
• Not indicate citable offenses on the booking slip;
• Indicate arrest charge(s);
• Write a cite for each citable misdemeanor violation; or
• All of the above
Obtain booking number for the arrestable charge(s) only; and
NOT indicate citable offenses on the booking slip.

(5-7/140.00)
Under which of the following situations can a cite be voided:

• The Violator has not signed the Notice to Appear and has not received a copy
• The Notice of Parking Violation has not been placed on the vehicle
• Violator was cited to the wrong court
• The Officer did not sign the citation
• All of the above
The Violator has not signed the Notice to Appear and has not received a copy; &
The Notice of Parking Violation has not been placed on the vehicle.

(5-7/150.15)
The Officer authorized to void a citation shall do which of the following:

• Mark all copies "void";
• Write the reason for voiding the citation on the cite;
• Sign and date;
• Place all copies of the voided citation in the appropriate citation file; or
• All of the above.
All of the above.

(5-7/150.15)
Each Station/Unit Commander shall maintain a log of "voided/dismissed" citations at their unit; how long must the "voided" citation log be retained ?

• Two years;
• Three years;
• Four years ;
• Five years ; or
• None of the above.
Two years

(5-7/150.15)
Regarding lost or stolen citations, citation copy, or a book of citations, the officer responsible shall:

• Submit a memo to the Unit Commander;
• Provide the citation numbers;
• Explain the reason for the loss;
• Station/Unit Commander shall notify Traffic Services Detail; or
• All of the above
Submit a memo to the Unit Commander; Provide the citation numbers; and Explain the reason for the loss.

(TSD is not notified)

(5-7/150.20)
Citations ______ not be issued to suspects who are being taken into custody.

• May ;
• Will ;
• Shall ; or
• Can.
Shall not

(5-7/140.00)
Misdemeanor warrant arrests shall not be made between 2200 hours and 0600 hours unless which of the following conditions exists:

• The arrest is made pursuant to a warrant, whether endorsed for night-time service or not, if the defendant is in a public place. Public place includes those locations currently interpreted for 647(f) PC situations (front yards are included, if open),
• The arrest is made pursuant to a warrant, whether endorsed for night-time service or not, and the defendant is in custody pursuant to another lawful arrest. Any hold so placed is binding,
• The arrest is made pursuant to a warrant at places other than those defined as public places, if the warrant is endorsed for unrestricted day or night-time service. A warrant endorsed for nighttime service, public place, would not meet this requirement,
• You make the arrest for violation of a domestic violence protective order, even though it did not occur in your presence. (Penal Code, 836, 840.)
• All of the above
All of the above.

(5-7/100.00)
The weapons training ______________ has the functional supervision over all training sessions at all Department ranges to enforce all safety regulations and to ensure that the training conforms to the quality standards of the Advanced Training Bureau.

• Staff ;
• Commander ;
• Lieutenant ; or
• Sergeant.
Lieutenant

(3-9/010.00)
Which of the following duties is the Range Master authorized to perform:

• Post and enforce safety regulations and orders,
• Inspect any deputy's firearm,
• Make recommendations to ensure that the condition of firearms of Sheriff's personnel conform to regulations,
• Prohibit the use of unsafe firearms or ammunition,
• Issue, repair, and maintain inventory control of all Department weapons and munitions, including tear gas.
• All of the above
All of the above.

(3-9/010.00)
An ___________ is an occurrence which involves property damage and/or personal injuries to other persons but causes no damage to Department/Permittee vehicle. ___________ include those occurrences in which the parties to an __________ allege that the collision was caused by some act of Department/Permittee vehicle which did not become engaged in the collision:

• Collision;
• Incident;
• Accident; or
• Traffic occurrence.
Incident

(3-9/070.00)
_____________________ shall be responsible for the investigation of on-duty traffic collisions involving their personnel when no injuries are sustained by the involved parties and the collision is not Code-3 or pursuit related. This shall include Department vehicles and all Permittee vehicles being operated on official business:

• Field Sergeants;
• Watch Commanders;
• Supervising Lieutenants;
• Supervising Sergeants; or
• Station or Bureau Commanders.
Station and Bureau Commanders

(3-9/070.00)
In all cases, collisions in which members are involved shall be investigated by a ____________ who shall respond to the scene of a fatal/serious collision involving a Department/Permittee vehicle.

• Sergeant;
• Lieutenant;
• Unit or Bureau Commander; or
• Supervisor.
Supervisor

(3-9/070.00)
The supervisor shall complete side one of the Supervisor's Report of Damage to County Vehicle or Permittee's Vehicle (SH-R-257) and he shall respond to the scene when he judges it necessary and feasible, depending upon the severity of conditions presented. A comprehensive memo shall be prepared by the supervisor and submitted to the ___________ or the __________ with the supervisor's report, stating an opinion as to the cause of the collision. The use or non-use of factory installed safety belts shall be addressed in both the SH-R-257 and the comprehensive memo.

• Watch Commander;
• Operations Lieutenant ;
• Unit Commander ; or
• None of the above.
Watch Commander; Operations Lieutenant

(3-9/070.10)
A deputy involved in an on-duty traffic collision, while driving a Department vehicle, must notify his private automobile insurance carrier in writing within _____ days of the incident. This notification, made under penalty of perjury, shall state whether or not he was operating the vehicle in the performance of his duty during the hours of his employment.

• 15;
• 30;
• 20; or
• 25
30 days

(3-9/070.05)
For purposes of this section, a "__________" is defined as the striking or contact of any other object, e.g., another vehicle, stationary object, roadway dip, etc., with a Department/Permittee vehicle which results in damage, injury or death:


• Collision
• Incident
• Accident
• Traffic occurrence
Collision

(3-9/070.25)
A collision/incident or work damage that occurred while the Department/Permittee vehicle was being used while engaged in County business and such collision or work damage could have been prevented by the employee shall be categorized as ?

• Preventable;
• Non Preventable;
• Work Damage;
• Vandalism; or
• All of the above.
Preventable

(3-9/070.25)
A collision/incident or work damage that occurred while the Department/permittee vehicle was being driven defensively or used in a reasonable, prudent manner and the employee had no opportunity to avoid the collision or work damage, shall be categorized as ?

• Preventable;
• Non-Preventable;
• Work Damage;
• Vandalism; or
• All of the above.
Non-Preventable.

(3-9/070.25)
A Department Member is responsible for the care and condition of any vehicle assigned to him. Willful negligence or abuse of county property shall be grounds for disciplinary action and, where responsibility can be fixed, __________ and __________ shall proceed as with any other disciplinary matter.

• Commanders and Chiefs;
• Captains and Directors;
• IAB Investigators and Unit Commanders ; or
• None of the above.
Captains and Directors

(3-9/070.45)
Section 6250 of the Government Code prohibits disclosure of ___________ except under specific circumstances.

• The release of Complaint Reports;
• The release of investigators files;
• The release of Medical Records; or
• all of the above.
Complaint Reports and Investigator files.

(3-9/090.00)
What information shall be released, upon request, to a victim or the authorized agent of a victim when a loss or injury is the result of an incident caused by arson, burglary, fire, explosion, larceny, robbery, vandalism, vehicle theft or a crime of violence ?

• Name and address of persons involved in the incident, except confidential informants;
• Descriptions of any property involved;
• Date, time and location of the incident;
• Diagrams, Statements of parties involved in the incident;
• Statements of all witnesses, except confidential informants; or
• All of the above
All of the above.

(3-9/090.05)
Which information is never released to the public including the media ?

• Arrestee information - name, current charge, occupation and physical description;
• Circumstances of arrest - time and date of arrest, time and date of booking, location of arrest and factual circumstances surrounding the arrest;
• Victim's identification - name, age and current address, including victims of 261, 264, 264.1, 273a, 273d, 286, 288, 288a or 289 PC;
• Factual circumstances surrounding a crime or incident such as any injuries, weapons or property involved; or
• All of the above.
Victim's identification - name, age and current address, including victims of 261, 264, 264.1, 273a, 273d, 286, 288, 288a or 289 PC.

(3-9/090.10)
Government code section 6254 states that information shall not be released in all but which of the following circumstances:

• When disclosure of such information would endanger the successful completion of an investigation or a related investigation,
• When disclosure of such information would endanger the safety of a person involved in an investigation,
• When disclosure of that portion of an investigation reflects the analysis of conclusions of the investigating officer.
• When disclosure of the information has not been approved by the unit Commander
When disclosure of the information has not been approved by the unit Commander.

(3-9/090.30)
Section _______ of the California Civil Code mandates that information contained in Department of Motor Vehicle files shall not be released except to properly identified members.

• 1798.24 ;
• 1798.15 ;
• 1798.16 ; or
• 1798.17
1798.24

(3-9/090.30)
Which unit and its personnel are the only ones authorized by the Director of OAS to, or make physical search of, the records in the archives of RIB:

• Employee Relation/Advocacy Unit;
• Personnel Administration; or
• Records and Information Bureau.
Records and Information Bureau (RIB).

(3-9/090.50)
Who is designated as the criminal records security officer at the unit to which he is assigned ?

• Watch Commander;
• Watch Commander (rank of Lieutenant);
• Operations Lieutenant; or
• Unit Commander
Unit Commander.

(3-9/110.10)
Formal opinions from the County Counsel may only be requested by the ?

• Office of the Undersheriff;
• Office of the Assistant Sheriff(s);
• Office of the Sheriff; or
• Sheriff.
Sheriff

(3-9/210.00)
Informal County Counsel advice, legal research information, and assistance concerning Department matters are available from the:

• Office of Administrative Services;
• Office of the Undersheriff;
• Office of the Assistant Sheriff(s); or
• Legal Unit of the Executive Planning Council Staff.
Legal Unit of the Executive Planning Council Staff.

(3-9/210.00)
If a person arrested for 647 (f) PC requests a chemical test, he shall be:

• Advised to contact a physician, who can respond and assist him, at his own expense;
• Administered a breath test;
• Advised that we cannot assist him;
• Advise that a test will not be necessary, since we will not seek prosecution; or
• None of the above.
Administered a breath test.

(5-8/010.00)
If a person is arrested for under the influence of a barbiturate, the most appropriate chemical test would be ?

• Blood;
• Breath; or
• Urine.
Urine

(5-8/010.00)
The Department provides how many chemical tests ?

• Three ;
• Two ;
• Four ;
• None of the above ; or
• All of the above.
Three

(5-8/010.00)
The crime lab has supervision over the Intoxilyzer training program. What is the minimum number or personnel, per unit, that the crime lab must train and certify ?

• 50%;
• 25;
• 5;
• 10%; or
• None of the above.
None of the above (there is no minimum number or percentage of personnel who must be trained, however - only trained personnel shall use the device).

(5-8/010.15)
Regarding the intoxilyzer, ______________ personnel shall conduct periodic inspections to ensure compliance with installation, safety, inspections, operation and training procedures ?

• Scientific Services Bureau;
• Traffic Services Detail;
• Inspectional Services Bureau;
• Risk Management Bureau; or
• None of the above.
Traffic Services Detail

(5-8/010.15)
If an arrestee's blood-alcohol content is below 0.05%, but marked symptoms of intoxication exist:

• Have the subject examined for sickness or signs of narcotic use;
• Attempt to obtain a sample of the subject's blood or urine, preferably urine if narcotics or drugs are suspected;
• Have the Watch Commander authorize the booking or release;
• All of the above; or
• None of the above
All of the above.

(5-8/010.15)
Regarding obtaining a blood sample against a suspect's will, when physical restraint of the suspect would be required to obtain the sample, who must approve ?

• Attending physician;
• Unit Commander;
• Concerned Watch Commander;
• Station Jailer; or
• None of the above.
The Concerned Watch Commander.

(5-8/010.20)
Regarding the forced seizure of blood from a suspect, what shall the Watch Commmander giving permission consider before making the decision:

• Has adequate evidence already been obtained ?
• Is the incident severe enough to warrant this action and would the degree of force required be excessive ?
• Could the use of restraints adversely affect the admissibility of the evidence ?
• Does the on-call D.A. concur with the proposed action ?
• All of the above.
All of the Above.

(5-8/010.15)
Regarding special reports, the Sheriff, Undersheriff or Assistant Sheriffs may request special laboratory tests or investigations. Findings on restricted reports shall be submitted to:

• Captain of Major Crimes Bureau;
• Area Commander;
• Division Chief; or
• Unit Commander.
Captain of Major Crimes Bureau; Area Commander; Division Chief.

(Not the Unit Commander)

(5-8/020.10)
Who shall authorize immediate requests for the services of a fingerprint deputy ?

• Watch Commander, followed by a JDIC confirmation;
• Any supervisor;
• Unit Commander; or
• Concerned Detective.
Watch Commander, followed by a JDIC confirmation.

(5-8/030.00)
Regarding the categories of crimes which normally do not warrant the services of the Latent Print Deputy, who has the authority to make exceptions to the established crime categories ?

• Watch Commander;
• Detective Bureau Commander;
• Unit Commander;
• Both the DB Cmdr. & the Watch Commander; or
• None of the above.
Both the Watch Commander and Detective Bureau Commander.

(5-8/030.10)
Regarding Polygraph Examinations, the investigator shall obtain permission from whom before the exam can be administered ?

• Watch Commander;
• Unit Commander or Area Commander in the absence of the Watch Commander;
• Subject of the Polygraph exam;
• All of the above are correct; or
• The W/C & the Unit Cmdr only are correct.
The subject of the polygraph examination.

(5-8/040.00)
To whom should a request, from an outside agency, for a polygraph exam involving Internal Investigations be made ?

• Sheriff;
• Undersheriff;
• Assistant Sheriff;
• Commander of the Internal Affairs Bureau; or
• Division Chief or higher.
The Sheriff

(5-8/040.15)
Regarding requests for use of aircraft, who shall be responsible for the scheduling, notification, reporting, and recording of flights and flight requests:

• Station Watch Commander
• Unit Commander
• Aero Bureau Watch Commander
• SEB Desk
• Chief or higher
The Aero Bureau Watch Commander

(5-8/050.20)
Regarding helicopter safety precautions, all personnel present at take-off or landing shall stay at least _____ feet away from the rotors.

• 25 feet ;
• 50 feet ;
• 100 feet ; or
• None of the above.
50 feet away from the rotors.

(5-8/050.25)
Who provides the Identi-Kit services to all Department Units ?

• The Crime Lab
• Traffic Services Detail
• Scientific Services Bureau
• Logistics
• None of the above
Scientific Services Bureau

(5-8/060.00)
Who determines the types of crimes for which the Identi-Kit will be used ?

• The handling Deputy;
• The concerned Detective;
• The Watch Commander;
• The Watch Sergeant; or
• The Unit Commander.
The Unit Commander.

(5-8/060.00)
Where should requests for identification photographs be directed ?

• Station Detective;
• Crime Lab;
• Technical Services;
• Scientific Services/Photographic Laboratory; or
• None of the above.
Scientific Services/Photographic Laboratory.

(5-8/065.00)
Crime scene photographs are arranged through which unit:

• The Unit requesting the photos;
• The Crime Lab;
• Technical Services; or
• The Identification Section of Scientific Services Bureau.
The Identification Section of the Scientific Services Bureau.

(5-8/070.00)
If a Sheriff's Station has a parolee in custody, and they want to place a "hold" against parolee, what is the procedure ?

• Contact the California Department of Corrections;
• Call the State Parole Office;
• Add Charge the parolee;
• All of the above; or
• None of the above.
Call the State Parole Office.